Well we have
sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1
Then divide the above identity by cos^2(x)
sin^2(x)/cos^2(x)+cos^2(x)/cos^2(x)=1/cos^2(x)
tan^2(x)+1=sec^2(x)
Since
tan^2(x)=sin^2(x)/cos^2(x)
and
sec^2(x)=1/cos^2(x)
:)
2006-12-17 07:28:11
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answer #1
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answered by ws 2
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False: its 1+tan 2 = sec 2
2006-12-17 06:43:36
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answer #2
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answered by gianlino 7
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false
its
( -sec^2+ tan^2 = 1 )
2006-12-17 06:46:22
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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False
1 + tan² u = sec² u
is the correct identity. It follows from
sin² u + cos² u = 1
when you divide throughout by cos² u.
2006-12-17 06:46:57
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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false
1 + tan^2(x) = sec^2(x) is an identity
2006-12-17 06:43:07
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answer #5
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answered by Faraz S 3
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This is false. It should read sec²x -tan²x = 1.
In other words, the + sign should be a - sign.
2006-12-17 06:50:31
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answer #6
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answered by steiner1745 7
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false
Tan^2+1=Sec^2
1=Sec^2-Tan^2
2006-12-17 06:45:23
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answer #7
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answered by FooFoo 1
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false
sec^rx-tan^2x=1
2006-12-17 06:46:16
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answer #8
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answered by raj 7
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