2006-12-17 03:46:26 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Elections
Each African-American slave was considered three fifths of a human for the purpose of establishing claim in the House of Representatives...according to the constitution. Thank goodness that has changed.
2006-12-17 03:53:39 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The Founding Fathers realized that if slave owners had their slaves counted as a full person then the slave states would have a huge number of representatives in Congress. This is why all slaves were counted as 3/5ths of a person so that the slave states would not have a huge advantage.
A lot of people believe that the Fathers were racist in doing this but if you look at the underlying strategy behind it you will see that it was to prevent the dominance of slavery-minded folks in government. Check out Article 1, paragraph 3 of the Constitution for the actual information.
2006-12-17 11:59:30 · answer #2 · answered by TioDice70 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They counted as a half of a man. This of course was after the abolition of slavery. Women did not have a vote at this time.
2006-12-17 11:48:02 · answer #3 · answered by oceanse11 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Are you asking how many votes did each slave count as in the past?
If you are, the answer is 1/3. For every 3 slaves a slaveowner owned, they got one extra vote. (or maybe it was 1/5...)
2006-12-17 11:49:09 · answer #4 · answered by Ashley P 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
1/5 per slave. Each slave was viewed as being 1/5 of a man. So, every five slaves would be one vote.
2006-12-17 11:48:29 · answer #5 · answered by nikerockinchica 1 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Top slave, maybe warranting the highest price.
2006-12-17 11:47:51 · answer #6 · answered by Joseph C 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
unneccessary
2006-12-17 11:47:13 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
i dont understand what you are asking.
2006-12-17 11:48:34 · answer #8 · answered by Buk (Fey) 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
What do you mean??
2006-12-17 11:47:37 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋