a = b
a^2 = a*b
a^2-b^2 = a*b-b^2
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
(a+b) = b
a+a = a
2a = a
2 = 1
I do understand the problem of 2=1, but where and is the equation
incorrect? And most important, why?
a = b
multiply both sides by a
a^2 = a*b
subtract b^2 from both sides
a^2-b^2 = a*b-b^2
apply the distributive law to both sides
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
divide both sides by (a-b)
(a+b) = b
substitute all a's for b's (remember, if a = b you can do this)/
a+a = a
regroup the two a's in the left side, and rename it 2a
2a = a
divide both sides by a
2 = 1
The point which I highlighted in red is where you would have to divide each side of
(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)
by (a-b) to get
(a+b)=b
But you will notice that if the first part of the proof (a=b) is true, then (a-b) would equal 0.
And, as we know, we can't divide by 0, so from that point on this "proof" that 1=2 is relegated to the non-valid, but interesting, heap of other things which people try to use to prove things which are also false.
2006-12-16 21:33:40
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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I'm going to present to you a *FALSE* proof that 2 = 3.
Let a = 1 and b = 1. This means that
a = b. Square both sides, and we get
a^2 = b^2. Therefore,
a^2 - b^2 = 0.
a = b. Multiply a both sides, and we get
ab = b^2. Therefore,
ab - b^2 = 0
Since a^2 - b^2 is equal to 0, and since ab - b^2 is equal to 0, we can equate them.
a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2.
We can factor the left hand side as a difference of squares, and the right hand side normally, to give us
(a - b)(a + b) = b(a - b)
Now, notice we have (a - b) on both sides. That means we can cancel them, to give us
a + b = b
Plugging in our original values a = 1 and b = 1, it follows that
1 + 1 = 1, or
2 = 1.
2006-12-17 05:15:04
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answer #2
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answered by Puggy 7
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1 does not equal 2. Unless you're willing to accept parallel lines crossing, a big square circle, and an invisible pink unicorn in the proof.
2006-12-17 04:38:35
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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It’s easy to prove:
a=b --> a² =ab --> a² - b² = ab - b² --> (a+b) (a-b) = b (a-b) --> a + b = b
now put a instead of b --> a + a = a --> 2a = a --> 2 = 1 !
2006-12-17 04:44:34
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answer #4
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answered by ~ ANGEL ~ 5
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I have seen two ways on the internet, but both of them break some math rules.
2006-12-17 04:36:12
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answer #5
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answered by alwaysmoose 7
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let 1=x, then
x=2
to check
the value of x=2
then x which is 1=2
2006-12-17 06:07:41
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answer #6
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answered by the walking brother 2
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One with a split personality.
2006-12-17 04:43:01
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answer #7
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answered by tmills883 5
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