English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories
0

2006-12-16 20:14:17 · 8 answers · asked by vmaster091 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

8 answers

Impossible, but it is usually like that:

5a = 2b
-5a = -2b
10a - 15a = 4b - 6b
10a - 4b = 15a - 6b
2(5a -2b) = 3(5a - 2b)
2 = 3

2006-12-16 20:26:49 · answer #1 · answered by Gerino 2 · 0 0

Let,

2+1 = a;

3+0 = a;

so, 2= a = 3

2006-12-17 04:23:34 · answer #2 · answered by haque 2 · 0 1

I'm going to present to you a *FALSE* proof that 2 = 3.

Let a = 1 and b = 1. This means that

a = b. Square both sides, and we get
a^2 = b^2. Therefore,
a^2 - b^2 = 0.

a = b. Multiply a both sides, and we get
ab = b^2. Therefore,
ab - b^2 = 0

Since a^2 - b^2 is equal to 0, and since ab - b^2 is equal to 0, we can equate them.

a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2.

We can factor the left hand side as a difference of squares, and the right hand side normally, to give us

(a - b)(a + b) = b(a - b)

Now, notice we have (a - b) on both sides. That means we can cancel them, to give us

a + b = b

Plugging in our original values a = 1 and b = 1, it follows that

1 + 1 = 1, or
2 = 1. Add 1 to both sides, and we get
3 = 2, or 2 = 3.

2006-12-17 04:32:05 · answer #3 · answered by Puggy 7 · 0 0

2 +x= 3+x

x>_0, 2 +x _<3+x

x_<0 then 2+x>_3+x

x=0 then 2+0<3

and therefore 2 can't equal three unless a multiplity with a particular variable.

2y=3, y=3/2.

this is true 2(3/2)=3

2006-12-17 04:21:58 · answer #4 · answered by Zidane 3 · 0 0

I can prove that 2=1 using derivitives, but you got me on this one.

2006-12-17 04:26:18 · answer #5 · answered by Madre 5 · 0 1

You can't. provide a correct proof. If you could you could prove anuthing.

2006-12-17 04:34:44 · answer #6 · answered by crazy_tentacle 3 · 0 0

Sorry. Can't be done.

2006-12-17 04:22:51 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

ummmm.......is this possible? *_*???

2006-12-17 04:18:12 · answer #8 · answered by Siela 1 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers