Impossible, but it is usually like that:
5a = 2b
-5a = -2b
10a - 15a = 4b - 6b
10a - 4b = 15a - 6b
2(5a -2b) = 3(5a - 2b)
2 = 3
2006-12-16 20:26:49
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answer #1
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answered by Gerino 2
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Let,
2+1 = a;
3+0 = a;
so, 2= a = 3
2006-12-17 04:23:34
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answer #2
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answered by haque 2
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I'm going to present to you a *FALSE* proof that 2 = 3.
Let a = 1 and b = 1. This means that
a = b. Square both sides, and we get
a^2 = b^2. Therefore,
a^2 - b^2 = 0.
a = b. Multiply a both sides, and we get
ab = b^2. Therefore,
ab - b^2 = 0
Since a^2 - b^2 is equal to 0, and since ab - b^2 is equal to 0, we can equate them.
a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2.
We can factor the left hand side as a difference of squares, and the right hand side normally, to give us
(a - b)(a + b) = b(a - b)
Now, notice we have (a - b) on both sides. That means we can cancel them, to give us
a + b = b
Plugging in our original values a = 1 and b = 1, it follows that
1 + 1 = 1, or
2 = 1. Add 1 to both sides, and we get
3 = 2, or 2 = 3.
2006-12-17 04:32:05
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answer #3
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answered by Puggy 7
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2 +x= 3+x
x>_0, 2 +x _<3+x
x_<0 then 2+x>_3+x
x=0 then 2+0<3
and therefore 2 can't equal three unless a multiplity with a particular variable.
2y=3, y=3/2.
this is true 2(3/2)=3
2006-12-17 04:21:58
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answer #4
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answered by Zidane 3
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I can prove that 2=1 using derivitives, but you got me on this one.
2006-12-17 04:26:18
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answer #5
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answered by Madre 5
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You can't. provide a correct proof. If you could you could prove anuthing.
2006-12-17 04:34:44
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answer #6
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answered by crazy_tentacle 3
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Sorry. Can't be done.
2006-12-17 04:22:51
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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ummmm.......is this possible? *_*???
2006-12-17 04:18:12
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answer #8
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answered by Siela 1
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