2006-12-16 19:53:33 · 4 answers · asked by adamvanessen 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Other - Cultures & Groups
The interregional differences in England run much deeper despite its small size, since it has developed over a period about four times as long, and had significant input from other languages (Latin, Norse with the Viking invasions, French with the Norman invasion, and more Latin and Greek with the industrial and scientific revolutions). It is for these reasons that Trudgill highlights traditional dialect areas in England (also reproduced below), which are apparent more in rural and remote areas, and these belie their origins in the Saxon and Norse kingdoms of yore.
and the link will give maps of regions and how different it is
2006-12-16 20:05:13 · answer #1 · answered by bill_will76 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm guessing. In America, you could tell I was from the South because I drawl on certain words and if I really forget myself, I get the lazy mouth. In the South alone There's an Applachian accent, Texas accent, a Virginia accent, the stereotypical Southern accent (like around Georgia), etc. It's pretty easy to tell if someone is from California vs. Indiana vs. New Jersey. So, I'm guessing they can.
2006-12-17 13:03:35 · answer #2 · answered by yeahyeah 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Even some non Brits can
2006-12-17 03:56:11 · answer #3 · answered by judy_r8 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i wish i was british.
can i convert like madona?
would brits hate me?
2006-12-17 03:57:43 · answer #4 · answered by little_kitty_88 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋