I was given 10% beneficial interest. i signed an agreement stating i would be responsible for taxes but not until actual closing when i opt to buy the property, i am still leasing property. Can they charge me for the real estate taxes?
2006-12-16 06:54:15 · 8 answers · asked by k m 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
Based on your contract, you don't have to pay property taxes. The beneficial interest is irrelevant. Once you execute your option to purchase, then you're responsible for the taxes. Until then, tell them to go pound sand. Just make sure they pay it. If not, you sue them for breach of contract.
Regards
2006-12-16 14:14:46 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The agreement you signed stated you would not be responsible for the taxes until the actual closing of the property. The owners can ask all they want for you to pay the taxes, but that is not in the contract agreement you signed, so you are not liable for that. I would think not even the 10% of the taxes. Those taxes are the owner’s responsibility to pay, and you are not the owner yet. Best of luck.
2006-12-16 07:49:48 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Your contract states, and was agreed to by both parties, that you are not responsible for real estate taxes until you own the home ... so no, it's not legal unless they give you an amendment and you sign and agree to it.
2006-12-16 11:44:54 · answer #3 · answered by Gig 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am assuming that the issue has not come up in the past. (If it did, deal with it the same way.)
From what you've written, I think that you should ask to see the tax bill. If your name is not on it, you have no liability. I also think that if the agreement does not mention shared tax exposure, or similar wording to denote that you have some tax liability, you have no obligation to pay.
2006-12-16 08:29:33 · answer #4 · answered by PALADIN 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it isn't in the contract, it isn't legal for them to ask you of that. They could simply ignore it and wait for the closing and have you pay for it. Which would stink.
Posting your legal contract here would help us out to translate what really is the terms of agreement between both parties.
2006-12-16 18:10:35 · answer #5 · answered by John Rosa 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, human being B is only no longer to blame for the non-public loan. Being on loan and being on identify are 2 separate issues. also, placed provisions in position to void the settlement and to get damages if human being A would not keep the valuables taxes and mortgages modern-day or motives the valuables to lose fee or transfers a element or all of human being A's identify in the valuables. also, placed provisions in position as to what is going to ensue if the position burns down or is broken by using acts of god or by using human being A. human being A ought to no longer placed human being B on identify. What occurs if human being B comes to a call no longer to purchase the living house?? Regards
2016-10-18 09:16:57 · answer #6 · answered by canevazzi 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When you lease a house, the owner pays all the expenses out of the money he's collecting for the lease.
2006-12-16 09:05:11 · answer #7 · answered by teran_realtor 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It sounds to me you are only responsible for 10% since that is your interest in the home.....If you have a legally binding agreement, make sure you have a copy with their signatures as well as yours, then no you don't have to pay the taxes.......
2006-12-16 07:05:54 · answer #8 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋