English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

4 answers

Obviously there is a difference between inverse and opposite and yet no equivalence.

2006-12-15 22:46:26 · answer #1 · answered by small 7 · 0 0

You are attempting to impose a mathematical function on things that are not all mathematical and even some simple mathematical concepts.

For example we can talk about the equivalence of numbers. We can say that 0.24 is equivalent to 1/4. But that doesn't mean that the difference of 0.25 and 1/4 is 4/1 or 1/0.25. There the difference is zero.

You need to scope in what the boundaries are for your concepts to make them work.

2006-12-16 09:46:23 · answer #2 · answered by Alan Turing 5 · 0 1

My opinion is that equivalence is irrelevant to difference. Man and woman and vastly different but can be equal in various aspects, and what applies to gender differences applies also to other categories.

2006-12-16 06:46:54 · answer #3 · answered by HEND A 1 · 0 0

we are all created equal yet we are all different

2006-12-16 17:41:28 · answer #4 · answered by alfonso p 2 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers