2006-12-15 22:22:42 · 3 answers · asked by nvhang 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
I think it is Schwarz's inequality. See http://mathworld.wolfram.com/SchwarzsInequality.html also see mathworld for almost all your definitions/famous theorems. Also there is a quick proof there. I have never heard of Bunhiacopski. Then again there are issues about attribution in the math world. What in the US we call Newton's method is called Raphson or Newton-Raphson method elsewhere.
2006-12-16 03:14:29 · answer #1 · answered by a_math_guy 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Right, but i think the condition for the equality is a1*b2=a2*b1. You can easily prove this inequality by using the vectors.
2006-12-16 00:28:05 · answer #2 · answered by beu 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
a1*b1 + a2 * b2 <= sqrt( (a1^2 + a2^2) * (b1^2 + b2^2) )
the sign "=" happens when and only when a1/b1 = a2/b2
you can use it upto a_n * b_n
2006-12-16 00:21:18 · answer #3 · answered by James Chan 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋