In Texas, an individual is required to sign an affidavit at the time of applying for a marriage license stating that he or she does NOT have any child support arrears. What are the consequences of falsifying the info? IE-swearing that there are no monies owed, when there are in fact arrears. How is the law inforced? How is it reported? Would the marriage be legal?
2006-12-15
18:36:50
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7 answers
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asked by
misskitty3
2
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
How could such a thing be reported?
2006-12-15
18:50:18 ·
update #1