England and France have similar populations (probably quite close in the early 19th century too) but France has twice the area. Also, France has a far higher % of her GDP dedicated to agricultural goods. As a result, if you think about it, large markets which draw in people from a huge area (largely devoid of shops) are more likely to be popular in France; and shops which produce tertiary (manufactured) products, and which can depend on their densely-populated surroundings, are more likely to occur in England. Right?
2006-12-15
14:16:15
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6 answers
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asked by
rage997
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Social Science
➔ Economics