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for example how long in earth hours would it take for someone traveling 99% the speed of light to have an hour go bye

2006-12-14 17:34:15 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Physics

8 answers

you would be to short to notice

2006-12-14 17:37:24 · answer #1 · answered by crazzy 4 · 0 0

for every hour that passes for someone travelling at 99% the speed of light (relative to the earth), roughly 7 hours would pass for someone on the earth. the relation is this:

time passed(on earth) = time passed (moving) /sqrt(1-v^2/c^2)

where v is the speed, and c is the speed of light.

2006-12-15 01:49:45 · answer #2 · answered by Mister Psycheldelic 1 · 1 0

This kind of question has to be stated EXTREMELY CAREFULLY.

For example, for someone travelling at 99% of the speed of light, it takes EXACTLY one Earth hour for THEIR hour to go by --- because the basic assumption is that each observer's time goes by at exactly the same rate, AS MEASURED BY THEM!

So, let me try to re-phrase the question into one I THINK you meant to ask:

"If someone travelling at the speed of light measures that one hour has gone by, for them, how much time would an observer ON EARTH say had elapsed FOR THEM while that moving time measurement was made by the moving observer?"

Now we have a well-defined question, and we can give a DEFINITE ANSWER to THAT question.

The relation between the elapsed time as measured by a rapidly moving observer, t_mov, and the corresponding elapsed time as measured by a stationary observer, t_stat, is given by:

t_stat = t_mov / sqrt (1 - v^2 / c^2).

(Note: v/ c is always < 1, so that t_stat / t_mov is always > 1.)

So in your example, t_stat = t_mov / sqrt (1 - 0.99^2) = 7.0888.. t_mov.

In other words, a stationary, Earth-bound observer would claim that slightly more than 7 hours had elapsed during the time that the moving observer's clock had changed by only one hour.

(This neglects other, purely Newtonian effects which in general delay or increase the rate at which information between these two observers is transmitted. This ideal situation can be achieved by having the rapidly moving observer whirl around the stationary one in a perfect circle --- as was done in a famous CERN experiment on the apparently lengthened decay lifetime of relativistis muons, which won its designers and executors the Nobel Prize.)

There is a lot of confusion, even among professional physicists, when they write popular articles or make television shows about this. They seem to simply drop their guard about expressing themselves clearly and accurately. I will not name names, to avoid embarrassing them.

Live long and prosper.

2006-12-15 01:37:38 · answer #3 · answered by Dr Spock 6 · 1 0

In earth hours, it would take someone an hour to have an hour go by.

That hour is relative, and produces a variety of answers.

2006-12-15 01:37:46 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

one hour but time would move relative to each other since the time to speed relationship is inverse the faster would slow relative to the slower but a hour would still be an hour to the faster moving object as i understand it anyways

2006-12-15 01:45:47 · answer #5 · answered by Den P 3 · 0 0

Hi. The relationship follows the Special relativity formula. : http://www.answers.com/topic/time-dilation

2006-12-15 01:42:35 · answer #6 · answered by Cirric 7 · 0 0

The flow of time is steady. It is the observers relative motion that effects the perception of the flow of time.

2006-12-15 01:43:27 · answer #7 · answered by S.A.M. Gunner 7212 6 · 0 0

it's really realtive

2006-12-15 01:38:17 · answer #8 · answered by wind cries mary 3 · 0 0

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