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1. I as part.
2. I as whole.
Whether 1 & 2 are opposites or inverses?

2006-12-14 15:41:48 · 3 answers · asked by The Knowledge Server 1 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

3 answers

This question is not phrased well; the word "I" could be interpreted different ways.

If you mean to limit your interpretations to the word "I" meaning the first person singular pronoun for self, in the English language, then perhaps your question is only incomplete, or ambiguous as to the referent of "inverses" and "opposites."

You need to express "I" as part of something, or as a partial something. A part of a person? That doesn't work.

"I" as a whole what? Does this mean "I" refers to a whole person, a whole concept, a whole pronoun?

You may mean the inverse as negative, or the inverse as reciprocal, or the inverse as reversed in nature. But the usage above is unclear.

And what, exactly, is the "opposite" of the first person singular pronoun?

2006-12-14 16:00:22 · answer #1 · answered by Longshiren 6 · 0 0

If the slopes of lines are equal, the lines are perpendicular. If the slopes of lines are negative reciprocals of each other, the lines are perpendicular. If niether of those are true, the lines are niether perpendicular nor parallel. Write the equations in the form y=mx + b to find the slope, which is m. For 1, the slopes are 2 and -2. So these lines are neither. For 2, one of the slopes is 1/3 and the other is -3. Since -3=(-1/(1/3)) these are reciprocals and the lines in 2 are perpendicular.

2016-05-24 18:06:37 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

part and whole are inverses arent they? the opposite of whole would be none right? so if they arent opposites i think they have to be inverses.

2006-12-14 16:54:47 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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