I wrote my wife a contract saying that I would be her slave at no charge and I would have to do what she says I wrote it at my own will and she got it witnessed,notaarized it,and we both signed it and dated it.Is it legal because I told her I would be her slave for free.
2006-12-14 15:05:17 · 16 answers · asked by coyotefirerain 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
No, because slavery is illegal.
With that said, I sure wouldn't object if a man agreed to be my slave.
2006-12-14 17:07:41 · answer #1 · answered by kp 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your slave contract is not enforceable for the following reasons:
1) Slavery is not legal, even when voluntarily submitted and recorded contract;
2) A contract requires that each person give something. In legal terms, this is called "consideration." Because your wife gave nothing in this particular agreement that you would be her slave, the agreement lacks consideration and is not enforceable.
3) A contract requires specificity. The requirement that you will do what she says is so broad that it could never be enforced by a court. This is like the person who gets one wish, and wishes for a million wishes. The fact that the contract is so open-ended suggests there was never sufficient detail for any person to rationally agree to it.
2006-12-17 06:14:03 · answer #2 · answered by SendDoc 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
a million) what's your take on the present discovery that Egyptian slaves were fairly shriveled workers? there is not any "take". How can Egyptian slaves be settlement workers? 2) Do you imagine that this discovery makes the biblical account look like an entire falsehood, or do you imagine the information is circumstantial? Neither. The Bible does no longer declare that the Hebrews were in Egypt for the duration of that era, and it does no longer element out the pyramids on a similar time once. The Bible mentions 2 cities the position the Hebrews were used as slave demanding paintings - by using a Pharaoh believed to have lived countless thousand years after the Pharaohs who equipped the Giza pyramids. Are you announcing that information that slaves were no longer used type of two,000 (probable more desirable) years before the Hebrews were enslaved is in a roundabout way circumstantial information that the Hebrews were no longer enslaved? it truly is type of like announcing that the historic previous of the Roman Empire is circumstantial information that slavery is a commonly employed company in Rome as we communicate. Jim
2016-10-18 07:44:53 · answer #3 · answered by benavidez 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is not legally binding because slavery is illegal. A contract can be considered null & void if it requires any party to perform any illegal acts.
Also, a contract must include "consideration". Both parties must receive something. That is why you see many contracts that say things like, "for the sum of $1".
2006-12-14 15:16:58 · answer #4 · answered by T H 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What are you asking? It is not enforceable... You cannot enforce any contract which violates the constitution. You can agree to be a slave but it can't be enforced.
2006-12-14 15:17:01 · answer #5 · answered by usamedic420 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Most of us men are already slaves to the wife, why not get it in writing.
2006-12-14 15:12:49 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You can't sign away your basic human rights, so it's not legally binding. Why do you need it to be legal, anyway?
2006-12-14 15:10:05 · answer #7 · answered by Casey 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sounds to me that you feel inferior and need a contarct to stay around,i think you may be a little touched.
2006-12-15 11:26:39 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
in the US you can not sign away your rights no matter what not even at you own free will.
2006-12-16 19:01:01 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Congratulations!!! I am very happy for Y/you both! May She train you properly and find great happiness in your servitude!
2006-12-17 12:25:55 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋