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7 answers

no, it is the same:
a^{1/2} a^{1/2} = a{1/2+1/2} =a
(a^{1/3})^6= a^{6/3} = a^2 .

2006-12-14 14:09:39 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

if the exponent are whole number you need to raise it to the power of the exponent but if it is a frac you should do the reversed which is take the root to the power of the exponent example 9^2=81 and 9^(1/2)=3 hope this helps

2006-12-14 14:34:29 · answer #2 · answered by arn_14 2 · 0 0

As long as the exponents are equivalent, then not at all.

For instance, let's take 5^2 (or "5 squared"). This is exactly the same as saying 5^(1 + 1), or 5^(4/2), or 5^(2cos(0)).

There's no difference.

2006-12-14 14:11:51 · answer #3 · answered by Puggy 7 · 0 0

No, but its an unusual concept to get used to. Basically, when you have something that looks like:

x^(1/y)

you're looking for the number which, when raised to the y power, is x.

Example:

128^(1/7) = z

So which number, z, when raised to the 7th power is 128?
(it's 2)

Remember this, if nothing else:

x^(1/2) = √(x)

It will help you understand the broader concept.

2006-12-14 14:16:35 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No. this is not. a similar guidelines of operation are observed for fraction exponents as for entire numbers. yet you should follow the guidelines for fractions-addition, fractions-subraction, fractions-multiplication, and fractions-branch.

2016-11-30 19:20:52 · answer #5 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

Not at all...u can use anything
Real number,complex numbers and even u can use functions of variables
e^1
100^-1.5
2 ^ 5/2
e^ 8 - 6i
x^ a^2
5^ cosθ
e^csc²θ
etc.........

2006-12-14 14:11:57 · answer #6 · answered by M. Abuhelwa 5 · 0 0

No not at all.

2006-12-14 14:06:37 · answer #7 · answered by Alex 3 · 1 0

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