no, it is the same:
a^{1/2} a^{1/2} = a{1/2+1/2} =a
(a^{1/3})^6= a^{6/3} = a^2 .
2006-12-14 14:09:39
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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if the exponent are whole number you need to raise it to the power of the exponent but if it is a frac you should do the reversed which is take the root to the power of the exponent example 9^2=81 and 9^(1/2)=3 hope this helps
2006-12-14 14:34:29
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answer #2
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answered by arn_14 2
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As long as the exponents are equivalent, then not at all.
For instance, let's take 5^2 (or "5 squared"). This is exactly the same as saying 5^(1 + 1), or 5^(4/2), or 5^(2cos(0)).
There's no difference.
2006-12-14 14:11:51
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answer #3
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answered by Puggy 7
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No, but its an unusual concept to get used to. Basically, when you have something that looks like:
x^(1/y)
you're looking for the number which, when raised to the y power, is x.
Example:
128^(1/7) = z
So which number, z, when raised to the 7th power is 128?
(it's 2)
Remember this, if nothing else:
x^(1/2) = √(x)
It will help you understand the broader concept.
2006-12-14 14:16:35
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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No. this is not. a similar guidelines of operation are observed for fraction exponents as for entire numbers. yet you should follow the guidelines for fractions-addition, fractions-subraction, fractions-multiplication, and fractions-branch.
2016-11-30 19:20:52
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answer #5
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answered by ? 3
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Not at all...u can use anything
Real number,complex numbers and even u can use functions of variables
e^1
100^-1.5
2 ^ 5/2
e^ 8 - 6i
x^ a^2
5^ cosθ
e^csc²θ
etc.........
2006-12-14 14:11:57
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answer #6
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answered by M. Abuhelwa 5
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No not at all.
2006-12-14 14:06:37
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answer #7
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answered by Alex 3
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