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Lots of questions here about how to reduce the gap between rich and poor -- so let me ask. Just exactly what IS the correct gap between rich and poor? I must have been asleep in school when they taught us the correct, proper gap size between rich and poor. Please cite how you know the answer.

2006-12-14 13:22:32 · 4 answers · asked by KevinStud99 6 in Social Science Economics

4 answers

All this crap about the gap between rich and poor and the poor getting poorer is just a smoke screen used by people to instigate class warfare. What difference does it make if the rich get richer faster than you are, as long as you are getting richer too?

2006-12-15 11:33:04 · answer #1 · answered by Uncle Pennybags 7 · 0 0

Thats a good question. The next one would be who gets to decide. The bottomline is how much of a gap should there be between a guy that works 80 hrs/wk and one that works 40 hrs/wk and another that doesn't work at all?

2006-12-14 13:39:04 · answer #2 · answered by Roadkill 6 · 1 0

There isn't one. Certain types of jobs demand certain types of salaries; and certain types of people are "risky" enough to start their own businesses.

There are many factors that go into poverty; bad parenting, hard drugs, etc......but generally speaking, in the United States if one tries hard they can succeed.

Additionally, the "poor" in the United States are much better off than the "middle class" in 80% of the world.

2006-12-14 13:33:12 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

You can get the United States definition of poor through social service income qualifications. Then there is reality, so the US definition has precidence in economics, but in human rights and services, reality takes precidence and poor isn't clearly defined...it just is.

2006-12-14 13:32:33 · answer #4 · answered by Melissa 2 · 0 1

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