I've heard it said that all the different varieties of humans today could have been produced if Adam had all dominant genes and Eve had all recessive genes. Does this make any sense genetically?
2006-12-14
12:19:05
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9 answers
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asked by
Leon M
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Science & Mathematics
➔ Biology
For the record, my question is not "Did Adam and Eve really exist?" My question is whether all variation in the human race could have been produced this way. And I should have also put this addition, "Why or why not?"
2006-12-14
12:55:20 ·
update #1
In short, no.
At most, they would have 4 alleles (ignoring that Eve was supposedly cloned from Adam's rib, thus really, at most 2 alleles if he was heterozygous at every locus, but that begs the question, why would he be?)
There are genes with THOUSANDS of known polymorphisms. To reconcile this, creationists have actually claimed that A&E may have had bizarre mega chromosomes with gobs of copies of every gene, and that because of sin, chromosomes have atrophied (seriously, AiG used to advocate this).
2006-12-14 15:57:37
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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If Adam and Eve were to have 2 children, the odds of the children being genetically identical is something like 8 million to 1.
But can't genes mutate?
2006-12-14 12:35:37
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answer #2
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answered by Paul 7
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No, because the inbreeding and accumulation of deleterious alleles would quickly bring such a severely genetically limited population to extinction, especially since any mutations occuring would most likely be neutral or deleterious. The population would be functionally extinct before it could ever get established.
2006-12-14 13:43:45
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answer #3
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answered by kiddo 4
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you are asking a question that cant be answered we have no none scientiffic fact to explain this thereo about adam and eve
2006-12-14 13:09:47
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answer #4
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answered by animals 1
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Okay so drgoodhi is ignorant and does not know simple human history.
Genetically...very possible, but what about divine plan?
2006-12-14 12:23:39
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answer #5
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answered by Lisa 3
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i think one of them did the wild thing w/a monkey
2006-12-14 12:30:12
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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no
the first people came from africa
how could it
2006-12-14 12:21:52
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answer #7
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answered by jemba 3
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Yes,It could be possible.
2006-12-14 12:20:14
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answer #8
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answered by ASK A.S. 5
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they didn't exist, so the answer is no
2006-12-14 12:20:35
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answer #9
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answered by ? 7
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