A member of a group of Semitic-speaking peoples of the Near East and northern Africa, including the Arabs, Arameans, Babylonians, Carthaginians, Ethiopians, Hebrews, and Phoenicians.
2006-12-14 12:04:57
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answer #1
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answered by Roy 1
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The Semites were a civilization that occupied parts of the Near-East long before the present groups. Many different groups today can trace their beginnings back to the Semites.
2006-12-14 12:09:50
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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People above are correct that a semite is someone who speaks one of the middle eastern semitic languages. But the term anti-semitic has come almost exclusively to mean anti-Jew.
2006-12-14 22:34:55
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answer #3
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answered by Red Herring 4
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The term Semite was proposed at first to refer to the languages related to Hebrew by Ludwig Schlözer, in Eichhorn's "Repertorium", vol. VIII (Leipzig, 1781)
The word "Semitic" is an adjective derived from Shem, one of the three sons of Noah in the Bible (Genesis 5.32, 6.10, 10.21), or more precisely from the Greek form of that name, namely Σημ (Sēm); the noun form referring to a person is Semite.
The concept of a "Semitic" peoples is derived from Biblical accounts of the origins of the cultures known to the ancient Hebrews
Semitic peoples and their languages in modern and ancient historic times have covered a broad area bridging Africa, Western Asia and the Arabian Peninsula.
Early traces of Semitic speakers are found, too, in South Arabian inscriptions in Yemen, Eritrea, Northern Ethiopia and later, in Roman times, in Nabataean inscriptions from Petra (modern Jordan) south into Arabia. (Here, too, Arabic has largely won out over the original Semitic tongues.)
2006-12-14 12:14:59
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answer #4
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answered by Kwan Kong 5
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I believe it is roughly landowner, or simply owner. If I am wrong, someone correct me.
In the story of Cain & Abel, Cain farmed while Abel tended a flock. To grow grain, it is necessary to protect it from the animals or flocks, usually by means of a fence. A shepherd needs not own the land, while a farmer must, to be successful. God was displeased by Cain's offering, but does not say why. After Cain murders Abel, God leaves a mark on all Cain's descendants that is not described, either. Perhaps the writers of the Book of Genesis thought it was obvious. If it is obvious, it might mean God calls "ownership' a sin. Look at the implications for Capitalists from that. Just noodling around on it....
2006-12-14 12:15:46
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answer #5
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answered by bob h 5
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A descendant of Noah's son Shem. In the strictest sense of the word, it includes Arabs, Palestinians; most of the Middle East! But in the common modern usage, it has come to mean only descendants of Jacob, Abraham's grandson.
2006-12-14 12:07:39
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answer #6
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answered by Emmaean 5
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Kewish.
2006-12-14 12:08:35
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answer #7
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answered by mary57whalen 5
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Always wondered that.
2006-12-14 12:03:31
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=At1c0pCbXDABIjrMKGrIPsrsy6IX?qid=20061214165606AAg2ryV
2006-12-14 12:09:41
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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http://mb-soft.com/believe/txo/semites.htm
Hope this helps
2006-12-14 12:05:49
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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