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I know it has something to do with genetics...?

2006-12-14 09:47:48 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Biology

4 answers

The most common forms are X-linked. Females have XX, so if one X chromosome carries color-blindness, the other X she has 'overrules' it. Males, being XY, don't have this, so if they have an X-linked form of colorblindness, it will be expressed. (Where 'expressed' means it will be present in their physiological makeup, aka, they will 'express' colorblindness.)

2006-12-14 09:50:52 · answer #1 · answered by Cobalt 4 · 0 0

because it is a common defect in the xy gene combination, i think you will find it only happens in women where there is a history of colour blindness on both parents sides which is un common.

you will also find that it can skip generations for no apparent reason and turn up a generation or more later.

my dad and all the males on his side of the family are all red/green colourblind but i am normal, genetically I guess this means that my mums gene is dominant over my dads gene in this case

end of day it is all genetic

2006-12-14 17:58:03 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The reason is that it is carried on the X chromasome, so a woman needs two colorblind X chromasomes to be colorblind, but a man only needs 1 because he only has 1 X chromasome and 1 Y. If a woman has 1 colorblind X and 1 non-colorblind X, she will not be colorblind because it is a recessive trait

2006-12-14 17:50:38 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It is a y chromosome trait.

2006-12-14 17:49:43 · answer #4 · answered by ~XenoFluX 3 · 0 2

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