i saw this on a BBC site : "Musical instrument shops must pay an annual royalty to cover shoppers who perform a recognisable riff before they buy, thereby making a "public performance"." Can this be true?
2006-12-14 06:48:29 · 3 answers · asked by Robert D 2 in Business & Finance ➔ Corporations
http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/magazine/4521589.stm
its the very last one 100
2006-12-14 06:59:05 · update #1
No, not at all. Firms aren't required to pay consumers for services and opportunities that they provide. If anything, the consumer should be paying the shop for allowing him to use the equipment involved in that which was played.
2006-12-14 06:57:33 · answer #1 · answered by Mikey C 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Cannot possibly be true. That would mean that someone whistling a recognizable tune to himself, while taking a walk outside would owe the publisher of that piece a royalty.
Copyright laws in the US and Britain are similar in that they allow "fair use" of musical pieces for various purposes, including reviews and previews.
If the article is anything, it is repeating a bit of nonsense.
2006-12-14 15:04:13 · answer #2 · answered by Vince M 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well if it is the BBC it must be true - lol - sounds riciculous, like an urban legend. I have seen this repeated on many sites and blogs but never any verification. I will be interested to see the answers you get.
2006-12-14 14:59:48 · answer #3 · answered by digitsis 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋