English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

i have property which i purchased prior to marriage which is being foreclosed. can my wifes assets which she had prior to marriage be attached

2006-12-14 06:47:16 · 6 answers · asked by thegypsy 1 in Business & Finance Personal Finance

6 answers

it depends on if you live in a community property state. If so, then you are considered one financial entity. However if you do not and her name is not on the mortgage, then she will not be liable.

2006-12-14 07:06:54 · answer #1 · answered by VATreasures 6 · 0 0

Yes.

once you cleave unto one another, the system works amazingly fast in accepting the two of you as one. However, it doesn't work nearly as nicely the other way. If you were getting a divorce, she would still be liable for debts on marital assets, unless specifically named in the decree.

2006-12-14 07:16:17 · answer #2 · answered by lowflyer1 5 · 0 0

so a strategies as lenders circulate, you're to blame for debt which you incurred jointly decrease than the two your SSNs, married or no longer. as a strategies by using fact the regulation is going, you're the two to blame for all debt incurred (regardless of who's call and SSN it relatively is decrease than) in the process the direction of the marriage. even nonetheless, you 2 could have in spite of divorce settlement you settle to. as long as each and all of the supplies and funds owed are addressed, the courts are not gonna care what you do. You suggested: "we are the two good human beings, and that i admire him; yet individual concepts, alternatives, desires to acquire components we for sure fluctuate on besides as verbal substitute, religious or perhaps "want" compatability and ease of talk and verbal substitute on those themes is strained and commonly brushed off by making use of him." do no longer tell me there have been easily NO crimson flags previous to the marriage in this. you're 50 years previous and could understand extra useful. those differences ought to have been reported with some style of compromise/settlement previously you acquire married. in case you have been so apprehensive approximately mxing funds and having a life-style that ought to intend (GASP!) which you would be to blame for somebody else, then WHY did you get married?? Your concerns now look fairly pathetic, given your age. What did you think of marriage became? If this marriage would not artwork, and my wager that by using fact of your preoccupation and paranoia approximately being your differences and financial themes, please do no longer marry back till you have addressed your concerns and desires previously. studying you're on diverse pages appropriate to the significant issues in life is what dating is for, no longer marriage. you need to the two on no account marry back or on no account marry and not making use of a PRENUPTIAL settlement. i think you on no account considered that the two. good grief.

2016-10-14 22:56:48 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

'Fraid so. You are considered a single financial entity now, so if you brought liabilities into the marriage (jaust as if you had brought assets) they are shared equally between you.

2006-12-14 06:59:29 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I'm guessing she could give you a loan or something to pay it off. It all depends on whose name the property is in - if it's only in your name then it's your respsonibility.

2006-12-14 10:06:16 · answer #5 · answered by cutie.xo.pie*heart 1 · 0 0

YES unless you had a prenup. signed and it stated exactly that. You also had to each have a seperate lawyer for this prenup to be valid.

2006-12-14 07:48:10 · answer #6 · answered by Kitty 6 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers