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let x be a continuous random variable with density function

f(x) = (1/(x^2)) for x>=1
and
f(x) = 0 everywhere else.

how do you find P(X=2)?

i know how to find inequalities for these type of problems but i can't figure out equality. I know the answer is 0 but how do we get that?

2006-12-14 04:16:06 · 4 answers · asked by Napper 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

If you know how to deal with inequalities, you can do equalities too. X=2 means the same as the double inequality 2=

2006-12-14 04:29:22 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

For a continuous random variable, the probability is defined as the area under a segment of the probability curve. This is why for an equality the probabilty is zero; the area under a point is zero. this is why for a continuous random variable we don't ask for the probability of a single value equality, we ask for the probabilty of a range, either within the neighborhood of a single value, or from a value to the middle (as in how the normal distribution table is set up) or from the value to a tail.

2006-12-14 04:29:39 · answer #2 · answered by Joni DaNerd 6 · 2 0

the probability that x=2 is the area above that point and below the function. the point x=2 has no length so there is no area in the region in question, so P(x=2)=0

2006-12-14 04:28:39 · answer #3 · answered by Daniel P 2 · 1 0

This is found by the definite integral int(x from 2 to 2) f(x)dx.

Look at the bounds of the integral. See why the answer is zero?

2006-12-14 05:28:30 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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