2006-12-14 00:53:58 · 13 answers · asked by glen a 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
In the Bible, "son" is used many times, and it even seems to have a literal, "begotten" interpretation when applied to Adam in Luke 3:38: "the son of Enosh, the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God." (1)
This is a problem, because we know that the Attributes of The Almighty GOD are the most pure and exalted, and that He is far above having physical qualities (such as having a physical appearance, or having offspring). Even if "Father" and "Son" are used metaphorically, it could still lead to confusion.
Rather than using the terms "Father" and "Son" to refer to GOD and His servants (including Jesus), the terms "Lord" and "Servant" are much better and less confusing.
2006-12-14 01:18:09 · answer #1 · answered by HF 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes. John 3:16 states:
"For God so loved the world that He gave His only-begotten Son"
2006-12-14 08:55:09 · answer #2 · answered by wvucountryroads 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
That was the dividing issue of the Nicene Creed.
So yeah, unless you are a Coptic, Gnostic, or Muslims.
Than he was made, made, or just a Prophet.
The "Made" idea means he didn't exist till he was born. Christians are supposed to believe he was created during the 6 days. I can't remember which one.
But if you read the Bible, you'll find Jesus uses the Title "Son of Man" much more often. I wonder what that could mean? And I am not implying anything. I really haven't heard an amazing answer to that one yet, but a few good ones.
2006-12-14 08:59:33 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
yes and no
YES,
as in St. John 3:16 .... For God so loved the world that He gave His only-begotten Son ...
Though some translations say "His only Son".
St. John is stressing the difference in relationship that Jesus has with God the Father, compared to the rest of us who are "adopted" sons.
NO,
as the Creeds express it: "begotten of the Father before all worlds". Also, that He and the Father are co-eternal and co-equal.
SO
Jesus' relationship with the Father is FROM BEFORE ALL TIME (i.e., Eternal). NOT begotten in a human sense as a father begets children.
2006-12-14 08:55:39 · answer #4 · answered by kent chatham 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
According to the Bible, yes.
John 1:14,18
John 3: 16-18
Acts 13:33
Hebrews 1:5,6
Hebrews 5:5
1 John 4:9
Revelations 1:5
The scriptures teach that Adam was created by God, but that Jesus was born from God. So Jesus carried the divine nature of God Himself. According to Philippians 2:5-11 Jesus was in existence and already equal to God before he became a man. He was birth by God - sharing his nature, power and authority. But he gave in up and became first a servant, then a human being. He was obedient to God even to the point of death. Then returned to his position of Lordship - taking back his power and authority.
Jesus used both the title "son of God" and "son of man". This is because he was 100% God, but also 100% man. Something he did because he was God, other things he did becasue he was a man. So he used both titles.
Romans 5 explains that because sin came through the actions of a human (Adam), so salvation had to come through the actions of a human. God could not die for the sins of the world. So He had to become 100% human in order to give his life to redeem the rest of mankind. So in the person of Jesus he laid aside his diety, became human, and gave his life.
2006-12-14 09:05:27 · answer #5 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
In worldly terms... yes. In theological terms... Father, Son and Holy Spirit are one in the same. Jesus was God on earth.
2006-12-14 08:57:56 · answer #6 · answered by ALEX W 1 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Well the bible states that he is, whether or not you believe that is a different story. Everyone has their own opinion.
2006-12-14 19:58:16 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
yes
2006-12-14 08:54:54 · answer #8 · answered by lover of Jehovah and Jesus 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Sure
2006-12-14 08:55:28 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
yup
2006-12-14 08:55:24 · answer #10 · answered by Born♥2♥b♥ME 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋