is it possible to not have a wife co-own husband's property?

Question

In U.S. that is. Affecting the property husband had prior to the marriage, and the property accumulated after the marriage. Thankx.

Answer 1

Get a pre-nup agreement before the marriage.

Answer 2

Even without a prenup, property owned prior to a marriage is considered separate property provided that it remains separate (ie spouse’s name is not added to the deed). There are exceptions. For example, if a person owns a home before they marry but during the marriage they use martial funds to make improvements and as a result the value increases, then the spouse is likely entitled to 50% of the increased value.

Anything acquired during a marriage is considered martial property, unless it was obtained as a result of gift or inheritance and was never co-mingled (again, the spouse’s name is not added to the deed).

Naturally, a person has no claim to anything their ex-spouse acquires after a divorce.

Answer 3

Only property accumulated during the marriage is considered mutual property. Property owned prior to marriage is exempt

Answer 4

undecided what you're talking approximately once you're saying "separate supplies" state. frequently, in a community supplies, no fault state, community supplies is chop up the two and separate supplies is shown to the companion who obtained it and kep it as separate supplies. you do no longer say no be counted if she owned the homestead until now they have been married and if she did, no be counted if or no longer they used joint money after marriage to pay the loan, all of which impacts the question of no be counted if the valuables is community or separate. actual possession has little or no to do with it, except there are childrens in touch.

Answer 5

okay let's compromise...property before marriage can stay in husbands name and passed on to children...property gained during marriage should be shared....if your going to be greedy about money and material goods gained during marriage, why marry?

Answer 6

yes, i think so. there is this thing called pre nuptial agreement..if the couple entered into this agreement,you have no right to the property acquired before marriage.

Answer 7

its possible provided you both make an agreement of pass a law in the senate...

Answer 8

It would depend on which state you lived in. You would want to check with an attorney.

Answer 9

call a lawyer....think alot depends on the state you live in....good luck

Answer 10

the property you had before is yours......any accumalations have to be shared