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hey guyz in da constitution it says u hhave the right to bear arms

which means arms which means upper limbz of your body which means you can fight someone if they threaten u by swinging fists

2006-12-13 23:47:59 · 16 answers · asked by theliberal14you 1 in Politics & Government Politics

16 answers

2nd Amendment. Your interpretation is a little off but I like the creativity.

2006-12-13 23:50:57 · answer #1 · answered by Abu 5 · 0 1

The Constitution doesn’t say that the people have the right to own a gun and neither does it state that the people have the right to keep and bear arms. Keeping and bearing arms is an inherent individual right which predates the Constitution.

Understanding what the Second Amendment is may help.

Get rid of the idea that the Second Amendment grants the Right to Keep and Bear Arms. Such an individual right (as with all other Individual Rights) predates the Constitution.

Neither does the Second Amendment make the Right to Keep and Bear Arms as dependant on involvement with a militia.

The typical syntax of the Second Amendment is as follows:

“A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.”

This is incorrect, with the correct version as ratified (refer to the Library of Congress) being:

“A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.”

That phrase prior to the single comma is a dependant clause and its meaning is “dependant” on the phrase following the single comma which is a declaratory statement and is not dependant on anything but itself.

Therefore (if you parse this phrase), the real meaning is, “(T)he right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.” That’s it! But there are depths to it. The First Amendment begins, “Congress shall make no law. . . . . .” That’s very specific, shall make no law, bu the Second Amendment goes farther, it states, “shall not be infringed.” Not only cannot the Congress pass no law restricting the right to keep and bear arms, it can do other things which infringe on it. For example, having the right to keep and bear arms means little if you have no ammunition, so passing a law about ammunition cannot “infringe” on the keeping and bearing of ares.

Gunny T made the assertion that there are court cases supporting (in one manner or another) the right to keep and bear arms. In this he is correct, in fact, there are more than 100 United States Supreme Court cases which in one way or another support the right to keep and bear arms. Here I refer you to the book “Supreme Court Gun Cases by David B. Kopel, Stephen P. Halbrook, Ph.D., and Alan Korwin.

The actual use of guns is well covered by State Laws.

2006-12-17 20:08:24 · answer #2 · answered by Randy 7 · 0 0

could it, might it JUST be possible that the second amendment may have been put there by the gun manufacturers?? i mean, are the other 5.5 billion people of the world total nutcracks to not allow their citizens to bear firearms?? it's not like the americans have a 'high moral self' or a better brain to know that thou shouldn't shoot people, so you're fine with letting them bear firearms?
And the protection problem is really being seen from the wrong end of the telescope, don't you think?
"buy weapons from us because we've sold weapons to all the criminal elements in your locality, so now you have no choice but to defend yourselves!"
the weapons industry in US is worth billions of dollars because they've coaxed all the citizens into buying them. It also costs many more billions of dollars yearly in hospitalization, jails, court cases etc. basically, if NOBODY had weapons, every1 would be a lot wealthier!
De-weaponisation may look like a fool's idea, but it has been done earlier, after the 2nd world war somewhere in europe i think. all you need to do is get all the heads of gun-manufacturing companies together, and shoot them with their own cursed guns!
i think i can recall an amendment or something about Prohibition of alcohol being repealed in the US because they realized it was folly.. can't they repeal the 2nd amendment the same way? i mean, it's not like they'll be damaging the constitution or something... in fact this amendment must've surely turned the founding fathers in their graves!

2006-12-14 08:53:13 · answer #3 · answered by answerQuest 2 · 0 2

The Second Amendment. The word "arms" is synonymous with, yes the area from the shoulder to the palm, but also constitutes weapons of most kinds. If you remember, the word used for when a weapon is prepared for deployment is that the weapon has been 'armed'. To arm something, said object bears weapons; such as a man walking out of a building armed, even the phrase armed and dangerous.

2006-12-14 08:02:36 · answer #4 · answered by Huey Freeman 5 · 1 1

Well the second amendment to the Constitution, part of the Bill of Rights, grants citizens the right to bear arms. This has generally been interpretted in court to mean that private citizens can own firearms.

Hope this helps.

2006-12-14 07:50:55 · answer #5 · answered by Sir Smith 2 · 0 1

In numerous cases the U.S. Supreme Court has determined the term "People" as used in the 2nd Amendment means "individual citizens" and is NOT restricted to militias and military organizations. It has also determined "Arms" are "weapons, including the firearms of the period". That doesn't leave gun controllers a whole lot of wiggle room...

2006-12-14 09:59:31 · answer #6 · answered by Gunny T 6 · 2 1

2nd amendment says that we have a right to bear arms. if you are attacked or threatend you have every right in the world to defend yourself: by swinging fists, stabbing or shooting. if you get away with it or not that is up to a jury. "It is better to be judged by twelve than carried by six". However i do know that there is a law against owning guns if you are a felon, or if you use ebonics on yahoo answers.

2006-12-14 07:50:24 · answer #7 · answered by Richard Cranium 3 · 0 1

Right to Bear Arms means that if we see a bear we have the right to take him arms from him.

We can also use a gun to do that.

2006-12-14 07:53:03 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

What is "da constitution"? Your father's digestive system?

The lack of logic here is paralyzing.

I guess I'd rather have you swinging your fists than carrying a deadly weapon.

2006-12-17 17:48:17 · answer #9 · answered by Me, Thrice-Baked 5 · 1 1

The term "arms" means "armaments"..aka weapons. Therefore it is the second amendment.

That would be an interesting spin though..."the right to bear (naked) arms (limbs)" as a basis for nude beaches..LOL

2006-12-14 07:57:47 · answer #10 · answered by mymadsky 6 · 0 1

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