Why is the phrase "same sex" marriage always used without the possible qualification "same sex celebate" marriage? As if the "resemblence" to Catholic clergy is unresolvable, i.e. if they look like Catholic clergy and they behave like Catholic clergy they must be Catholic clergy? Realistically I wouldn't mind the additional non-clergy non-disorienting designation "same sex yet relatively celebate" marriage.
2006-12-13 21:43:11 · 5 answers · asked by Dan M 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
My simple answer is that if adults consent, live and let live.
2006-12-13 21:51:43 · answer #1 · answered by J G 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Im confused over why you assume that a "same sex marriage" has anything to do with being celibate or not??...being celibate means you have no sex...a homosexual couple can just as easily have no sex as a hetrosexual couple
actually your question confuses me a lot...lol...Im not 100% sure what you are really asking
2006-12-13 23:17:45 · answer #2 · answered by panda64 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Sorry, being a true Republican, I think that people need to keep their noses out of other people's bedrooms.
2006-12-13 22:54:31 · answer #3 · answered by ? 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
???
why would anybody assume same sex partners were celebate?
2006-12-13 22:59:35 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Who cares! Really - we should not care.
2006-12-13 23:58:30 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋