2006-12-13 10:29:51 · 17 answers · asked by pete c 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
I don't think so. I think the fact that they remained together for 37 years (until his death) proves that she was in love & nothing more. I think it is a story of true love that he was prepared to give up everything for the woman he loved. You wouldn't catch Prince Charles doing that, would you?
2006-12-13 18:29:56 · answer #1 · answered by monkeyface 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No way. Could Wallis Simpson become Queen of The United Kingdom.Back in 1936 divorcees were not allowed to marry into
the royal and being that she was divorced King Edward 8 had to
give up the throne to marry her.
2006-12-13 16:41:57 · answer #2 · answered by Katt82 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I honestly believe she thought she could become queen if she married Edward.Even to the last minute before he abdicated he thought he could have her as queen.Princess Margaret could not marry a divorcee, also he was commoner just like wallis simpson.
2006-12-13 11:01:01 · answer #3 · answered by letitbe 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The interesting thing is that Wallis Simpson could have been queen -- not the ruling monarch, but queen, as in female consort to the king, as Queen Elizabeth's mother was. As king, David had the authority to overrule the prime minister, and to retain his throne. But he did not have enough faith in his ability to stand up to Baldwin and chose not to do battle with him, and gave away the title through abdication.
There is well established precedent for English kings to have wives who were not born in England. And even Henry VIII, who established the Anglican church, didn't choose all his wives from England.
2006-12-13 16:39:59 · answer #4 · answered by old lady 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Edward initially expected that she would be, and she was very disappointed when she realised that she wouldn't be. In fact, there is some suggestion that when she realised this, she lost interest in Edward and didn't want him to abdicate, but he was infatuated by her and brushed her objections aside. But of course, they were ostracised by the Royal Family, especially the Queen Mother, and lived as outcasts thereafter.
2006-12-13 10:50:39 · answer #5 · answered by Up the pole 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It is not public knowledge as the records from the time are either kept in the Royal Archive or have never been fully released by the Public Records Office.
However she could not have become Queen as she was not born in Britain (just as Prince Philip could not be King as he was born in Greece).
2006-12-13 10:44:25 · answer #6 · answered by Timothy M 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Not with the general opinion of divorcees held by , Church, State, Royalty and general public. Remember that divorce was not commonplace, Church opinion on this matter was rigid,and Wallace was deemed unsuitable in no uncertain fashion. She had `been around`, something that society then found shocking. Today who cares?
2006-12-13 11:03:00 · answer #7 · answered by ED SNOW 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Maybe in her daydreams, but I don't think she thought seriously that she could challenge the British monarchy system. If she did have any such desires, it didn't take the British too long to make it plain that this would never happen.
2006-12-13 14:19:50 · answer #8 · answered by SB 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Dont know what you are on about, Mrs Simpson is called Marge not Wally, anyway I missed that episode.
2006-12-13 12:25:21 · answer #9 · answered by "Call me Dave" 5 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Not for a second. Though she may have "wished" for things to be different for her husband. He gave up the throne to live a basically simple life with her. She didn't strive to be anything other than his wife.
2006-12-13 10:40:41 · answer #10 · answered by Lee 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋