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part of the body politic?

For example: By law a certain no. of parking places must be allocated for handicap depending on store traffic. If a store, say in a small strip mall, has 14 parking places and 2 handicap should happen to run a sale that recieves 3 handicap's vehicles. The extra handicap parks in one of the unmarked spaces. Now the general public is short one parking space. They have just been discriminated against.

Now let us flip .the situation. All 14 parking places are full and another non-handicap vehicle arrives. Although 2 handicap parking spots are open, the vehicle cannot park there. They have just been discriminated against.

2006-12-13 09:14:01 · 5 answers · asked by Sophist 7 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

5 answers

No it isn't possible.

2006-12-13 09:22:22 · answer #1 · answered by jackie 6 · 0 1

This is a question I have pondered on for many years. Why does one social economic class have to pay the price so that others feel they are not treated unfairly. I am willing to walk 2 or 3 blocks and be thankful that I can instead of taking a reserved spot for someone who can walk that far. What I am not willing to do is be turned down for employment because I am a white male between 18 and 65 years of age and there is someone slightly less qualified than me but does not fit into my social economic class that also applied for the job. I know I am just a racist and should be shot. Life is not fair and we just have to live with that, maybe my social group is just more fit to take the brunt and not complain. We let the discrimination slide because our forefathers were terrible people and we owe all the people some recourse.

2006-12-13 09:30:27 · answer #2 · answered by Mike E 4 · 0 0

I disagree.

Discrimination is an old word. It just means conceptual division. The usage today, regarding racism etc, means differently: a biased action with regard to an irrelevant distinction: such as skin color, physical ability, gender, age, sexuality.

There need not be laws regarding discrimination whereby there is counter-discrimination. Installing a ramp beside a staircase doesn't discriminate against active bipeds. Any law enforcing a public institution to install one doesn't discrimnate with respect to disability. The owner of the instituion may happen to be a quadripalegic-- but their physical condition is irrelevant. What is relevant is addressed, namely that they own the structure and are bound by the law.

2006-12-13 14:09:31 · answer #3 · answered by -.- 3 · 0 0

first of all discriminations definition has been perverted by the mass public, particularly the media. in the general sense i think you mean though, yes it is possible, but no one of our elected representatives are smart enough to figure out how to do it.

2006-12-13 09:40:43 · answer #4 · answered by metroactus 4 · 0 2

You arrived at your own answer. No it is not possible.

2006-12-13 09:18:22 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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