How much power did the nobles have?
How much power did non-noble landowners?
How much power did non landowners have?
No this is not homework, and yes I be happy to look it up if someone would give a starting point.
2006-12-13 05:07:34 · 5 answers · asked by seirrafox77 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Well I was sort of going for have democratic was England compared to the Americas. I know much of our republican way of life was based on English traditions, like the Magna Carta. But I know that the Magna Carta was more about noble rights than that of the commoner.
2006-12-13 11:57:00 · update #1
If you were wealthy it was pretty good. If you owned land it ok; if you didn't life could be pretty miserable.
2006-12-13 05:15:50 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not at all. It was an oligarchy run by a few of the landed gentry and aristos. The King still had a large say in the appointment of the Prime Minister. Parliament was in dire need of reform - which it didn't get until 1832. Women did not have the vote.
To answer your three questions:-
A great deal as they all sat in the House of Lords which had an absolute veto over legislation. To get the 1832 Reform Bill passed a number of peers had to be created, favourable to the proposal
They elected the House of Commons and therefore had a certain amount of power, provided they were members of the right party. For a long period first the Whigs, then the Torys held virtually absolute power. This was the class that the leaders of the American Revolution came from.
Little or none. They buckled down and worked their butts off to earn a crust.
Later. The suggestion that England was feudal in 1776 is nonsense. The feudal system had more or less burnt itself out 400 years earlier following the Black Death
2006-12-13 13:44:30 · answer #2 · answered by rdenig_male 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was (and still is technically) a monarchy. The king controlled almost all aspects of life, but land-owners definitely had more say. Our initial American gov't was based on property rights, which was pretty much stolen straight from England. Today, England is much more democratic than 1776 due to its functioning, evolved Parliament and the devolution of the monarchy to an almost symbolic status.
2006-12-13 13:18:01 · answer #3 · answered by superfly 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the context of present day thinking...not very.
But refine your question. What, more precisely do you mean by "democratic" ? NB that the Greeks had to prove their citizenship before they qualified to vote.
2006-12-13 18:22:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
In 1776 England was Feudal, start with feudal, then everything will fall into place. Good luck
2006-12-13 14:44:26 · answer #5 · answered by gbgnick 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋