2006-12-13 02:27:38 · 8 answers · asked by wicked 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
it is 0
the guy above me is wrong, sin(0)=0 not 1
2006-12-13 02:29:52 · answer #1 · answered by outbaksean 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The value is zero. This is a fairly basic identity that is important to remeber in trigonometry. cos(0) = 1, cos(pi/2) = 0, sin(0) = 1, sin (pi/2) = 1.
2006-12-13 10:29:39 · answer #2 · answered by DavidK93 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
since pi/2 was not in parenthesis, we should apply cosine function at pi first, then divide the result by 2. that means we should find cos pi that is -1 (minus one) then the overall result would be -1/2, not 0 or something else.
2006-12-13 10:37:23 · answer #3 · answered by Fatih 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
cos(pi/2) = cos(2*pi/4)
= 1 - 2sin²(pi/4)
= 1 - 2sqrt(1/2)²
= 1 - 2/2
= 0.
2006-12-13 10:40:04 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's zero. Picture the sine and cosine functions on
the unit circle. What happens at pi/2?
2006-12-13 10:31:31 · answer #5 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it is 0.
2006-12-13 10:32:15 · answer #6 · answered by candy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Zero
2006-12-13 10:30:08 · answer #7 · answered by Gene 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
David K, fix your sin (0).
2006-12-13 10:32:00 · answer #8 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋