If a person had his or her child removed because of abuse in the form of subjecting said child to unhealthy living conditions and negligence, but not including physical or direct emotional abuse, would it be considered unlawfully reckless to put another child in the care of the same person whose biological child was removed do to the aforementioned type of abuse?
Does there need need to be an actual abuse conviction against a person for it to be considered reckless to place a child in that person's care, or can a court have removed the first child, acting in the child's interest, and have its action have the weight of a conviction of abuse, thereby making the placement of another child in the unconvicted abuser's care still reckless?
2006-12-13
00:37:23
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2 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics