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Find the volume of the solid that results when the region enclosed by the given curves is revolved about the y-axis (use "pi")

x=sqrt(1+y), x=0, y=3

volume=? Thanks a lot <|=D

2006-12-12 15:18:04 · 2 answers · asked by thesekeys 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

when you sketch that you get a paraboloid
so what we need here is a tripple integral, on which we have to set the bounds.
If we denote phi as the angle, r as the radius and z as the height we can conclude the following:
Since the solid is a rotational solid that means that the integration by phi goes from 0 to 2Pi and is independent of integrations by r and z.

(1) phi goes from 0 to 2Pi

if we look at the formula x = sqrt(1+y) we can easily transform it to

(2) y = x*x - 1

for the part of the curve that participates in the region
given that we get that

(3) x goes from 0 to 2

if we slice the solid with any plane containing the z axes we get the same region as the one we started form. Therefore we can easily conclude that r changes in the same manner as x does

(4) r goes from 0 to 2

from the area enclosed by the given curves we see that the y parameter changes with x parameter using the formula y = x*x - 1
and if we take into consideration that the plane containing z axes slices the solid always in the same region we can easily conclude that z changes with r using the same formula z = r*r - 1.
Hence that yields

(5) z goes from -1 to r*r - 1

With that determined all we need is to solve the integral defined as follows (I'll use the §{low, up} for the integral in lack of better sign):

(6) V = §{0, 2Pi} §{0,2} §{-1, r*r-1} r dz dr dphi

Since phi is independent of r and z and we put r out of the integration by z we get

(7) V = 2Pi §{0, 2} r §{-1, r*r - 1} dz dr

if we solve the integral by z (which is pretty simple) (7) yields

(8) V = 2Pi §{0, 2} r(r*r - 1 + 1) = 2Pi §{0, 2} r*r*r

Solving this integral (which is pretty simple as well) we get that the volume is expressed in the function

(9) Pi * r*r*r*r/2

where r goes from 0 to 2 yielding the final result is

(10) V = 8Pi

2006-12-12 22:28:59 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

that's no longer too annoying. in case you draw the diagram you will see that it incredibly is a beneficial common one, y starts off from 7 at x = 0 to 7.2^(-a million/4) at x = pi/4 and is going right down to 0 at x = pi/2. So we in simple terms opt for V = pi. int(pi/4 to pi/2) y^2 dx = pi. int(pi/4 to pi/2) 40 9 cos x dx = pi. 40 9 sin x [pi/4 to pi/2] = 40 9 pi [sin pi/2 - sin pi/4] = 40 9 pi (a million - a million/sqrt(2)) in case you opt for to rationalise the denominator you may rewrite this as = 40 9 pi (a million - sqrt(2) / 2).

2016-10-05 06:09:55 · answer #2 · answered by bugenhagen 4 · 0 0

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