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2006-12-12 13:37:21 · 8 answers · asked by HistoryHelp471 1 in Arts & Humanities History

8 answers

Of course not. Ever hear of the bombing of Pearl Harbor? That sure wasn't Hitler...

And...

If we want to point fingers, we could blame the dolts at the Versailles who made Germany feel so shitty and monitored that the German citizens were willing to follow a psycho like Hitler in hopes of freeing themselves from the shame of WWI.

2006-12-12 13:41:35 · answer #1 · answered by ms dont panic 4 · 2 1

Yes he is. If Hitler hadn't attacked Poland and the rest of Europe, Japan would have had no reason to attack America. Without Germany fighting Japan wouldn't stand a chance. Even if Japan had attacked America anyway, it wouldn't have escalated into World War, rather just an American-Japanese War. Japan was dependent on Germany to alleviate American forces away from the Pacific, while Germany did benefit from Japan taking American troops away from Europe, Germany was not as dependent on Japan as it was on Germany.

Without Germany's aggression and involvement the war would have been no where near as large as it was, if the war would have happened at all. So yes. Hitler was the sole cause of World War 2.

2006-12-13 01:30:26 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Nope, the Japanese were already attacking China before Hitler started his campaigns & Pearl Harbour was a result of American embargoes.

The Japs wanted to an imperial power like the western colonial powers, with or without Germany fighting.

Mussolini also wanted to restore Rome as a powerhouse like the days of the ancient Romans & he would have posed a threat. In fact, it was under his direction that the Italians attacked British forces in northern Africa in an attempt to take Egypt.

2006-12-13 07:58:04 · answer #3 · answered by Kevin F 4 · 0 0

No. A lot of people REALLY blame the start of WWII on Neville Chamberlain the Prime Minister before Winston Churchill. After the First World War Germany had all sorts of sanctions against them and the British PM (Chamberlain) allowed them to violate these rules because they said they weren't being bad. Eventually they started invading countries... and shortly thereafter Mr. Chamberlain resigned as British PM

2006-12-12 21:48:07 · answer #4 · answered by Modus Operandi 6 · 0 0

no. it was the Japanese who attacked Pearl Harbor and brought the United States in to the conflict. The Axis consisting of Italy, Japan, and Germany...v.s. the Aliance which was generally the European Common Market countries (England, France, Poland, etc.) U.S.S.R. Arabia, Greece. Hitler wanted total control of the world and his "master race" so he would have eventually turned on Japan and Italy. We bombed Japan with 2 atomic weapons, letting it be known that we beat Germany to the punch in developing such things...(that was a race too, if Einstein hadn't defected to the U.S. we'd all be doing the goose step and wearing shwastikas)
odd thing, the U.S. was neutral in that affair with hitler until Japan picked a fight with us...makes you wonder what all was really at play in all that...

2006-12-12 21:50:43 · answer #5 · answered by captsnuf 7 · 0 0

The bombing of Pearl Harbor was not the beginning of WWII. Perhaps it was the beginning of America's decision to stop the murdering of innocents, but not the war itself.

2006-12-12 21:45:24 · answer #6 · answered by Joan McBitch 3 · 1 0

Nope.Treaty of Versailles..arrogance of allies..

2006-12-12 22:28:26 · answer #7 · answered by Kaushall 2 · 0 0

Poverty and unemployment was also rampant in Germany before WWII.

2006-12-12 21:45:21 · answer #8 · answered by Clown Knows 7 · 0 0

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