2006-12-12 12:20:03 · 4 answers · asked by chris 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
yes because prime means its not divisible by any number but 1 or like41divided by 41 so 1 and 41 are the only numbers its divisibe by
2006-12-12 12:30:24 · answer #1 · answered by Titan Quest Goddess 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yepopers.
to find out take a numbers square root (in this case its like 6.4-sorry , i don't have a calc on me, the important part is its between 6&7); and see what prime numbers are below that. so it'd be 2,3,5. and 41's not divisible by any.
neat trick for divisible by 3 (if you don't know it already): add up the digits in the number, and if THATS divisible by three, then the number is. (ex. 4+1=5; 5 isn't divisible by 3 so neither is 41)
2006-12-12 20:29:06 · answer #2 · answered by Spearfish 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes because prime means the number is only
divisible by 1 and itself. in this case its 41, so the
only divisible numbers are 1 and 41
2006-12-12 20:41:23 · answer #3 · answered by Joy B 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. It is not divisible by any prime number less than
its square root, namely 2, 3 or 5.
2006-12-12 20:23:08 · answer #4 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋