the equation is KE=1/2 *m*v^2
2006-12-12 10:24:41 · 6 answers · asked by Fall Down Again 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
It's there because physics uses calculus, and the kinetic energy formula is the integral of the momentum formula:
integral of M = mvdv = 1/2 mv^2
2006-12-12 10:28:39 · answer #1 · answered by TankAnswer 4 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Tank is very correct. Kinetic energy is the integral of momentum, thus KE = 1/2 m v^2. That is where the 1/2 comes from.
2006-12-12 10:34:03 · answer #2 · answered by msi_cord 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The above answers are correct in the world of Newtonian mechanics. In relativistic mechanics, an objects energy is E=γ mc^2 and γ = (1-v^2/c^2)^(1/2). If we assume v<
2006-12-12 10:54:25
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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It's there because Kinetic Energy is the integral of momentum over velocity. I can't do an integral character here, so I'll use INT:
KE = INT(mv*dv) = 1/2mv**2 + C, where C is a constant.
To check this, take the derivative of the KE by velocity to get momentum back.
P = d/dv(KE)
P = d/dv(1/2mv**2 + C)
P = d/dv(1/2mv**2) + d/dv(C)
P = mv + 0
P = mv
2006-12-12 10:33:47 · answer #4 · answered by almintaka 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The turbulation of the equation evolves from the rhapsody of kinetic energy and the evolution of kinetic energy. The formula you might be referring to is the simplistic format rather than the original equation seen in standard text. Does this help?
2006-12-12 10:47:33 · answer #5 · answered by jqsep77 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the super smart physicist who derived it found the 1/2 from some other equation. i don't know why it's there, but it works
2006-12-12 10:27:11 · answer #6 · answered by Jeff Zhang (J-Z) 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋