2006-12-12 05:48:36 · 7 answers · asked by littolelegherl 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
taxation without representation
2006-12-12 05:56:21 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Although Britain at the time could not really be called a Democracy, the way we understand that word today, the House of Commons did have one important power: the power of the purse. Government revenue i.e. taxes could only be raised with the consent of Parliament.
The Americans, though having no representation in Parliament, thought the analogous prerogative belonged to their legislators. When the king of England imposed a tax on the American colonies by imperial decree, without legislative consent, the Americans were deeply troubled by the danger of this precedent - the English could conceivably tax us into abject poverty. This, in short, was the seed which started the revolution.
2006-12-12 14:14:09 · answer #2 · answered by jeffrcal 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Taxation without representation was part of the reason. The political reasons are described in the Declaration of Independence. One of the main reasons was freedom of religious expression.The Reformation had spread throughout Europe just 200 years earlier, and people were seeking a place where they could worship in their own way.
2006-12-12 14:10:10 · answer #3 · answered by Paulie D 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Proclamation Act
2006-12-12 14:06:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
British Hypocrisy and French Interests
2006-12-12 13:54:14 · answer #5 · answered by Dr.O 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Being taxed without being allowed to vote on it- like the Democrats do.
2006-12-12 15:09:21 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
What I was taught in school was "taxation without representation".
2006-12-12 13:56:34 · answer #7 · answered by Sean 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋