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1 - as any term divided by the itself yields to 1.
0 - as 0 divided by any term yeilds to 0.
Infinity - as any term divided by 0 yeilds to infinity.

2006-12-11 19:27:36 · 24 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

24 answers

0 ÷ 0 = ∞ (Infinity)

2006-12-11 19:37:12 · answer #1 · answered by Indychen 6 · 3 5

Like you have said, infinity defines as any term that is divided by 0. So The result of 0 / 0 is infinity, no matter if it's 1/0 or 2/0 or 256/0 or 1648/0.

2006-12-11 20:07:16 · answer #2 · answered by horensen 4 · 0 0

Any decision divided by 0 is UNDEFINED. A function that in a fee supplies the type 0 divided by 0 is undefined, even with the undeniable fact that the reduce of f(x) tending to that fee might want to nevertheless be calculated. at the same time as a function tending to a range "a" supplies the type 0/0 is probable because the numerator besides because the denominator have a difficulty-free component [of the type (x-a)] that once canceled the reduce will be calculated. Take to illustrate: f(x) = [(x -a million) (x +a million)] / (x -a million) There you are able to obviously see that once x = a million tha function is undefined. nicely evidently even with the actual incontrovertible reality that x = a million is a prohibited fee; to the left and to the right of one million thev function has a tendency to similar decision that's 2. In different words: LIM F(x) = 2 x ->a million How is this? nicely the function given even with the reality that it truly is a quotient of polynomials, the entire function behaves as a linear function of the type f(x) = x + a million !! (note: even with the reality that it behaves like a line you need to guage the area of the unique function, so at the same time as x = a million you've a sparkling aspect contained in the graph, a detachable discontinuity.)

2016-11-25 22:21:13 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Actually, none of the answers. The result of any number divided by zero is undefined. It can be shown through limits. As a correction to your reasoning, any term divided by numbers increasingly close to 0 yields positive or negative infinity.

2006-12-11 19:37:45 · answer #4 · answered by Dan 3 · 0 0

It's true that any number divided by itself yields 1, and any number multiplied by 0 yields 0. But 0/0 is indeterminate.
You can't determine an exact answer to it, bcz if you substitute anything for x in the below formula it would still work:
0/0=x
So the correct mathematical answer would be "Indeterminate"

2006-12-11 21:06:42 · answer #5 · answered by Noor O 2 · 1 0

0/0 is a form whose exact result can not be found. actually we can say that 0/0 is the solution of the equation 0*x=0 but we know that this thing is an identity. thus any value of x will satisfy the equation.

the solution is called as NOT DEFINED

it can be anything from 0 to infintity

example- 2*x/x when x=0 will be 0/0 but using limits we find it to be nearly 2

x*x/x when x=0 will become 0

x/(x*x) when x=0 will become infinity

2006-12-11 19:37:33 · answer #6 · answered by Punditji 1 · 1 0

The way you phrased the question shows that you've thought about it... the reason the answer is "undefined" is because the answer changes depending on the direction that you "approach" 0/0 from:

lim x->0 (x/x) = 1
lim x->0 (0/x) = 0
lim x->0+ (x/0) = +infinity

So maths "weasels out" and just says that 0/0 is "undefined", as we can't define it to be anything useful.

2006-12-11 19:54:56 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

dividing 0 / 0 =

The value will not be known the word is indeteminate

Click on the URL below for additional information concerning dividing 0 / 0

mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.divideby0.html



- - - - - -s-

2006-12-12 00:23:17 · answer #8 · answered by SAMUEL D 7 · 0 0

Well, it could be any number....
0/0 = 1 because 1*0 = 0
0/0 = 50 because 50*0 = 0
0/0 = 999 because 999*0 = 0
etc....

but notice that 1 is not equal to 50, neither is 999 etc.....
Therefore we say that

0/0 is undefined.

2006-12-11 20:06:36 · answer #9 · answered by AldoT 1 · 2 1

it is an inderminate form and therefore has many answer depending on the function because we can use L'Hopital's rules to solve all forms of inderminates including infinity - infinity,0/0, and others.

2006-12-11 20:05:18 · answer #10 · answered by Zidane 3 · 0 0

Infinity.

2006-12-12 02:46:18 · answer #11 · answered by Kenneth Koh 5 · 0 1

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