2006-12-11 14:07:43 · 4 answers · asked by Billy 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
They are preseved by the heterozygote pool. Even if a recessive trait is deleterious it will not affect heterozygote individuals.
2006-12-11 15:28:02 · answer #1 · answered by jowpers 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because an organism must be homozygous (same allele on both chromosomes) for the recessive gene for the recessive trait to be expressed. Thus, many organisms could have the recessive gene without the characteristic it codes for being shown.
2006-12-12 13:27:30 · answer #2 · answered by kt 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
hitler didnt try, thats not true..eugenics is not the same as trying to get rid of recessive genes
first of all you dont WANT to get rid of recessive genes in a population because thats where variability comes from...granted some recessive genes cause disorders, but thats the price you pay for adapting as a species
and its hard becasue we dont and is impossible to selectively mate so that there are no recessive traits left...you just cant do it...think about all the genes and alleles for each trait..just cant do it
2006-12-11 22:32:35 · answer #3 · answered by hayden160 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, Hitler tried, but you know, even recessive genes play a part in the whole of mankind
2006-12-11 22:15:29 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋