1550 / 2000 reduces to 31 / 40.
Next, to get the percentage, you divide 31 by 40, then multiply this number by 100. This is how you obtain a percentage.
31 / 40 = .775
.775 * 100 = 77.5
So, your answer is 77.5%
2006-12-11 13:51:17
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answer #1
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answered by rawlings12345 4
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.775% Simply divide 2000 into 1550. Just like the fraction indicates, divide the lower number into the upper number. Thus 1550 divided by 2000 = .775%
2006-12-11 13:50:08
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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1550 / 2000
=155 / 200 (take away the zeros at the end)
=77.5 / 100 (break down numerator and denominator...dividing by 2)
=77.5%
2006-12-11 13:49:13
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answer #3
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answered by jonny_ace2000 2
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1550 is 77.5 percent of 2000 :-)
2006-12-11 13:56:38
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answer #4
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answered by Moira S 3
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1550/2000=0.775*100%=77.5%
2006-12-11 13:49:08
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answer #5
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answered by angel 2
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1550 --------- 2000
x -------------- 100%
x = 1550*100/2000
x = 155/2
x = 77.5%
₢
2006-12-11 13:53:11
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answer #6
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answered by Luiz S 7
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i think of like seventy 5% of mine are. i think of this is particularly plenty an identical with maximum here. I greater proportion of contributors of the choice intercourse. till you're banging them you at the instant are not a whore.
2016-12-11 07:23:25
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answer #7
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answered by kleckner 4
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77.5%
2006-12-11 13:56:58
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answer #8
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answered by sam 3
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77.5%
2006-12-11 13:48:01
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answer #9
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answered by rnrumu 1
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77.5%
2006-12-11 13:47:19
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answer #10
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answered by d.treadway 2
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