Something weird about contractions.?

Question

This really confusing me. When someone says "Isn't he well-behaved?" or some other adjective in the place of that, you're also saying "Is not he well-bahaved?" since isn't means is not. Well 1. that doesn't make perfect sense, and 2. when you answer yes to this question, you say he is well-behaved. But when you say yes, the answer could be "yes he is not well behaved". You could change the words around while still making it the same statement by saying, "Is he not well-behaved". Isn't that confusing? :)

Answer 1

Actually, the answer to "Isn't he well-behaved?" is based on whether it is a 'real' or rhetorical question, and that should be clear from the context, at least from the way you SAY it.

Observation -- this construction ending with an adjective is more likely to be rhetorical in colloquial speech. On the other hand, a question like "Isn't he here?" almost always is used as a 'real' question.

1) "Now just look at him sitting there so quietly. Isn't he well-behaved?" (Rhetorical question. The answer "Yes, he certainly is!" is implied, and may even be stated in response.) Often this type of use will take the form of a statement with the question as a tag -- "He is very well-behaved, isn't he?" (Another alternative is "(Now) is he well-behaved, or not?" or its modern variant, "Is he well-behaved or what?")

2) "You seem to be suggesting you had trouble getting John to follow directions. Isn't he well-behaved?" (Real question --in this case, expressing surprise that the answer might in fact be "No, I'm afraid he is NOT well-behaved," though it's also possible the response will be something like, "Oh, but he is well-behaved. You misunderstood me.")

But insofar as there is confusion, it is not really about contractions. It is more the use of a the NEGATIVE in the question. The question "Am I not. . . ?" behaves in the same way.

Also, "Isn't he?" should be understood as equivalent to "Is he not?" (like "Am I not?" above). We do not use the word order "Is not he?" in English. (The change in word order is simply caused by the use of the contraction.)

Answer 2

All contractions are irregular but are accepted colloquialisms. Fluent speakers of English understand the meaning by association and they drive students of English, as a second language, to distraction. I willn't (won't) pursue this any farther (further), I just cain't. Irregardless.

Answer 3

Yes, you are right. I know what you mean. But that's just the way it is (no logical reasaon really). Other languages have a similar thing though. You make a statement, then say "Is it not?" or "Isn't it?" (in French, Chinese) after it.

Answer 4

Yes, that's really confusing. English is very irregular. Here's another one: Most possesive forms of verbs take an apostrophe before the s. For example, "Steve's." But the word "Its" doesn't unless is is the contraction form of "it is."

Answer 5

Yes, now that you mention it, that's confusing. Some contractions are used improperly all the time, such as "ain't." It is a real word; you just have to use it when you say, "I ain't," though it doesn't sound proper, does it? Especially if you say, "I ain't goin' nowhere." Double negatives. ;)

Answer 6

It's more of a negative comment, so you have to answer with a kind of double-negative to reply correctly