2006-12-11 06:47:58 · 3 answers · asked by Lassie 2 in Social Science ➔ Gender Studies
Think it depends on the individual person and circumstances. For instance I've been married 25 years and due to illness have been unable to make love for two years. We have both come to terms with it and its not an issue as we love each other. But I would say generally speaking men need sex more and probably think about it more.
2006-12-12 01:31:03 · answer #1 · answered by Pink n Wise 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I think you are going to have to ask a great many people this question before you 'can come up' with (sorry for any sexual innuendo in any imagry / words there ~ cough cough) a general consensus of opinion.
As a thought (post coital, as it were) after, like a certain American exPresident, 'what are the parameters you'd use to define as 'not having SEX' as? Would that include 'no kissing,' and if it did, would that exclude 'tongues,' or 'no physical touching,' or ....?
What boundaries would you place as the limits for determining 'without sex'?
Best of luck.
Sash.
2006-12-12 07:21:43 · answer #2 · answered by sashtou 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
women with a young family they are too tired for anything
2006-12-12 06:35:32 · answer #3 · answered by D D 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋