2006-12-11 05:15:06 · 4 answers · asked by John 4 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Many philosophers/ theologians of the Middle Ages would say yes. They address the problem of "first cause" by calling God the "self-caused cause" of all that exists. Whatever that means exactly. Interestingly, the idea of "cause" itself is highly complex if you start to question what it means for something to be the cause of something else. But that's a different topic.
2006-12-11 07:06:34 · answer #1 · answered by Josh 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, the problem is that you get lost in what's called a 'regressum ad infinitum'. If everything that exists is caused, then those causes also have to be caused, and the causes of those causes also, and ... So, in theory you can go back endlessly, but that seems imossible, because you have to have a first cause, which in some way or other came out of nothing or caused itself. According to Kant this problem is just caused(!) by fallacious reasoning, which is very probable, but it doesn't help much ...
2006-12-11 13:52:59 · answer #2 · answered by maldoror 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If things have a cause, then the cause is previous. Something, just one can not have an external cause. the rest, must.
2006-12-11 14:39:07 · answer #3 · answered by sofista 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Definitely.
Nothing happens without reason on this universe.
2006-12-11 13:27:29 · answer #4 · answered by neesha 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋