English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2006-12-11 03:22:08 · 9 answers · asked by silentknight64 3 in Science & Mathematics Astronomy & Space

9 answers

Its not really a speed. The theory is that they bend space to travel through it faster.

The only reason why there are speed for Warp in Star Trek (Warp 1, Warp 2, etc) is for there to be time for plot and dialogue. And that's really how Roddenberry decided on Warp Speeds. The episodes would be REALLY short if there was no travel time.

There's a really good chart about how "fast" its supposed to be at the website below.

Enjoy!

2006-12-11 03:24:56 · answer #1 · answered by Drew P 4 · 0 0

Warp speed is log to Base n
Warp 0 is the speed of light
Warp 1 is almost 3 times the speed of light
Warp 2 is 7 times the speed of light etc.

2006-12-11 05:18:39 · answer #2 · answered by christopher N 4 · 1 0

If warp speed were a simple linear scale based on multiples of the speed of light ie. warp factor 1 = c, warp factor 5 = 5c it would take the Enterprise about 10 months at warp 5 to get to the nearest star from earth. Not even the most talented writer could spin out a plot that long. It would have to be an exponential scale like the Richter earthquake scale where each integral unit is several thousand times as large as the preceding one, even then intergalactic travel would take several episodes if the dilithium crystals, the engines or Scotty were not to get severely strained.

2006-12-11 04:19:37 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

There was one episode from the original Star Trek that provides enough information to determine how fast the Enterprise was going.

In that episode, aliens that moved so quickly they could not be seen, took over the Enterprise and modified it's engines to go warp13.

At this speed, the aliens said it would take 300 years to reach the Andromeda galaxy, which was their destination.

The Andromeda galaxy is 2,200,000 light years away, at a travel time of 300 years, the ship would have to be going 7333 times the speed of light at warp 13, making warp 1 equal to about 564 times the speed of light.

2006-12-11 07:55:53 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

In the very first Star Trek techincal manual (I know, I know, but it WAS interesting and fun and I like to spend my money that way) which I bought new in 1980, "warp factor" was defined as the cube of the warp factor times the speed of light. So, a warp factor of 4 would be 64 times the speed of light. Usually, this was never really paid attention to and, especially in Next Generation, they constantly mention distances and then impossible times to arrival for the warp factor they say. Even Data... (sigh...)

Once in a while they do stick to the "truth" — for instance, with Voyager, when they find themselves 70,000 light years from Earth they state it would take 70 years to get home even at warp 10. (And assuming the equipment somehow held together, they never stopped, paused, or otherwise slowed from it and that they somehow didn't get mutated by the effect Janeway and Paris suffered (and mated during) in the really stupidly done episode in which they got a shuttle going warp 10.)

So, simply cube the warp factor stated and Bob's your uncle.

2006-12-11 06:32:59 · answer #5 · answered by roynburton 5 · 0 0

Warp speed is the speed of light. Warp 5 would be 5 times the speed of light.

2006-12-11 03:29:50 · answer #6 · answered by Joseph K 2 · 0 0

I understand warp to be the speed of light, so warp factor 2 would be 2 times the speed of light. I am not a trekee so I could be wrong.

2006-12-11 03:25:12 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

thrilling questions. i've got not got plenty information on the particular information on the warp tension. i understand that Voyager can handel warp 9.975 for as much as maximum of hours I forget the type. Voyager replaced right into a smaller vessel and sleeker to in all possibility handel the stresses of warp. The employer-E even with the undeniable fact that's extra cutting-edge and being a Sovereign type i could think of it somewhat is structural integrity can handel the stresses extra beneficial then Voyager. With the full warp element It gets complicated. interior the action picture era the Excelsor type replaced into outfitted with a transwarp engine yet, the test did no longer final long. i don't understand if it replaced into by using fact in vast call Trek III Scotty screwed around with Excelor's engines which in all possibility brought about the test to close down, or it replaced into yet one extra reason. In TNG the employer-D i think of in a pair of circumstances it went previous warp 9 i think of one replaced into while the travaler replaced into onboard. In TOS i think of the employer went previous their decrease as properly. to respond to you 2d question i think of if the deliver have been to flow previous its decrease technically the ships corridor would not sustain the strain and explode. I say technically by using fact the writers look to try this and are available up with b.s so the deliver would not blow up. On Voyager Tom Paris (aka idoit lol) apperently replaced into the 1st crossed the warp 10 barrier and then grew to become right into a lizard. i certainly think of the employer-D went previous warp 10 and that they did no longer get credited. As I reported in the previous it gets complicated, it style of sounds like everybody broke information.

2016-12-30 06:31:00 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

We need more power, Captain

2006-12-11 04:53:48 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers