2006-12-11 00:58:11 · 4 answers · asked by tacotaco2007 t 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
ofcourse it belongs to the palestinian people.
2006-12-11 01:05:18 · answer #1 · answered by Dirty 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, the Palestinians got their name from the country, not the other way around. The Philistines were southern Greek, it is believed. The original inhabitants were Mousterian Neanderthals followed by various other groupings. Whether the Philistines were the ancestors of the Palestinians is hard to tell. The Philistines seemed to have lost ethnic identity during the Assyrian period. The Philistines were not Semitic as the Palestinians are. So, sorry, ideology is not enough to change the facts. Neither the Jews nor the Palestinians are the original inhabitants. But, the odds are the Jews were there first. Unless the Philistines did become the Palestinians but there is very little evidence to support that.
2006-12-11 10:16:53 · answer #2 · answered by Elizabeth Howard 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It was originally habited by the Greeks.
2006-12-11 09:20:16 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2006-12-11 09:00:02 · answer #4 · answered by ? 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋