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From Archimedes' principle, we know that buoyancy of a liquid is inversely related to mass of the liquid displaced. But the formula for force is mass*acceleration which makes force directly related to mass. Since buoyancy is also a force, this is confusing. Can someone please give an explanation for this?

2006-12-10 22:44:37 · 5 answers · asked by Bezoar 2 in Science & Mathematics Physics

5 answers

Actually... be a little careful with terms.
The bouyant force is equal to the *weight* NOT the mass of the liquid displaced.
In zero-g there is no bouyancy.

You can certainly relate mass and weight if the gravity is known, but just bear in mind that buoyancy has to do with weight.

As for your confusion, the acceleration of a mass is the result of net forces. In the case of buoyancy, if an object floats, the net force is zero - the buoyant force equals the weight.

If the object does not float, then the weight exceeds the buoyant force and the object accelerates downward. The initial acceleration is less than gravity because the buoyant force opposes the weight. In many liquids, the object will soon reach a terminal velocity, in which the sum of buoyant force and drag equals the weight, so that the object no longer accelerates.

2006-12-11 00:24:31 · answer #1 · answered by AnswerMan 4 · 1 0

No....buoyancy is directly proportionate to mass displaced

Upward Force On Object = Mass Of Liquid Displaced

That Is Archimedes Principle.

2006-12-10 22:54:39 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Buoyancy is directly proportional to the mass of the liquid displaced.

This force acts upward where as the force acting on the body in the liquid is acting downward.

Probably this might have made you to think that buoyncy is inverse of weight.

2006-12-10 23:16:54 · answer #3 · answered by Pearlsawme 7 · 0 0

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2016-05-23 04:47:20 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Nicely explained in that link

2006-12-10 23:05:21 · answer #5 · answered by maussy 7 · 0 0

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