This is the wall that math hit in the early 1900s. You can't do proofs like this without rigorous definitions - a proof puts together what you "know" to show something follows from it. What do you know? These are the axioms you are using.
Very briefly, a typical exposition of integers starts with 0, the additive identity, and a successor function s(x). where s(x) >= x and x !>= s(x). 2 numbers a and b are described as equal if a >= b and b >= a. The positive integers are defined as 0, s(0), s(s(0)), s(s(s(0)))...
With these definitions you can then easily show that since 3 = s(2) then 3 >= 2 and 2 !>= 3, so 2 does not equal 3.
2006-12-10 19:07:50
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answer #1
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answered by sofarsogood 5
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sofarsogood is the only one answering the question: the way the natural integers are constructed, 3 is defined as something different from 2. Hence 2 does not equal 3. If you don't know how natural integers are constructed, you can *not* answer the question.
Everyone else is just going in circles: yes, if 2=3, then you can put three pigeons in two holes and 0=1 and 0=69 and everyting else. How do you know that's not the case ? Because then arithmetics would be downright useless, but who said it wasn't ?
2006-12-11 04:44:02
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answer #2
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answered by frank m 2
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consider 2+1=3
therefore 2 cannot be equal to 3 as there must be some operation on 2 to get 3.
also,
consider 2=3
multiply both sides by a number say,5
2*5=10
3*5=15
hence,
2#3
2006-12-12 00:03:40
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answer #3
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answered by arpita 5
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2#3
2006-12-11 02:52:17
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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according to Definition of equality:
for any given x,y and z(z not equal to 0) if x=y then x/z=y/z:
soppuse that 3=2 ==>
3/3=2/3 ==>
1=2/3
now i have to prove that 1not equal to 2/3
according to equality condition:
for any x,y: if x=y, then if x is in (scope) then y is in the same (scope); if x is real and x=y => y is real
if x is integer and x=y => y is integer
now
1 is an integer, while 2/3 is not integer ==>
1 not equal to 2/3 ==>
2 not equal to 3...........
2006-12-11 05:57:20
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answer #5
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answered by Ibraheem G 2
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consider 2+1=3
therefore 2 cannot be equal to 3 as there must be some operation on 2 to get 3.
also,
consider 2=3
multiply both sides by a number say,5
2*5=10
3*5=15
hence,
2#3
2006-12-11 02:56:20
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answer #6
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answered by physics 2
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One way to prove this is by contradiction.
Suppose that 2 is equal to 3. That is,
2 = 3
Then, if we subtract both sides by 2, we get
0 = 1
If 0 = 1, and anything multiplied by 0 is supposed to equal 0, i.e.
0(69) = 0
Then
1(69) = 0
BUT 1(69) is not equal to 0
Therefore we have a contradiction.
2006-12-11 02:54:37
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answer #7
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answered by Puggy 7
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First, Can you prove that 2=3. If you can't then you have the proof!!!
2006-12-11 07:02:57
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answer #8
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answered by Adithya M 2
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Suppose I had three pigeons, and two holes. If 2 = 3, then we would be able to put the three pigeons in the two holes with exactly one per hole. Let's see what we can do:
-Put 3 pigeons in hole 1 and 0 pigeons in hole 2
-Put 2 pigeons in hole 1 and 1 pigeon in hole 2
-Put 1 pigeon in hole 1 and 2 pigeons in hole 2
-Put 0 pigeons in hole 1 and 3 pigeons in hole 2
In any of these circumstances, there is a hole with more than one pigeon. So it must be that 2 doesn't equal 3. (In fact, it must be that 2 < 3.)
2006-12-11 02:58:42
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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