English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

4 answers

This is true

reason:

let x = .9999999....1
so 10x = 9.999999999999999....2

subtract to get 9x = 9 or x = 1

so this is identity

2006-12-10 18:12:52 · answer #1 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 2 1

Actually, 0.9999(repeating forever) IS equal to 1. This becomes a HUGE topic of discussion on many boards, and it actually clogs them up because a lot of hardcore mathematicians want to prove how they're right while at the same time the non-mathematicians who refuse to believe it to be true fight to prove that it doesn't make sense.

The fact of the matter is, 0.999(repeating) is equal to 1 because it uses the concept of infinity.

Some people might think, "But 1 - 0.999(repeating) is equal to 0.00000000000000000000000001!" But that is incorrect because that would indicate 0.999(repeating) is NOT repeating.

There are concepts in high school math called infinite series, and 0.99999(repeating) can be represented as
S = 9/10 + 9/100 + 9/1000 + 9/10000 + .......... (forever)

And the sum will actually turn out to be 1.

1 can be written in many ways (2 - 1, 8/8, 5^(0)) ... and 0.999(repeating) is just another way.

2006-12-11 02:59:23 · answer #2 · answered by Puggy 7 · 1 1

I think i remmber the one where 1=0. Its stupid really, becuase its easily debunked.

let: x+1=0
=> 0(x+1)=0
=> 0(x+1)=(x+1)
=> 0=1

It looks good to the untrained eye, but as all you math's wizzes know, you cant divide by 0, which is what is happening up there. x+1=0, and you are dividing both sides by x+1.. hence the flaw.

2006-12-11 02:38:49 · answer #3 · answered by Michael Murphy 2 · 1 1

I saw one once where 1 equaled 0, but have never seen that one. Interesting ^

2006-12-11 02:17:10 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers