2006-12-10 18:07:03 · 4 answers · asked by raga 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
This is the wrong forum if you want an accurate answer. you need to consult with an attorney who specializes in securities.
2006-12-10 20:02:45 · answer #1 · answered by shroomigator 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's not my field of law, but my answer is yes. If you have an agreement to sell shares and the buyer holds up his end of the bargain and the seller still has his shares, the remedy is to make the seller sell the shares. You can make a seller of a house sell the house, so why can't a seller of shares be made to do the same. However, this area is highly regulated, so one ought to consult an attorney skilled in this area.
2006-12-11 02:18:03 · answer #2 · answered by Erik B 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Generally no, if there are other suitable remedies, unless its the last of the shares and there's no way monetary equivalent can remedy the situtation. Depends on other undisclosed factors.
2006-12-11 04:16:05 · answer #3 · answered by alaskasourdoughman 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i do not think so. court hardly grants specific performance in instances when the aggrieved party may be compensated in monetary terms.
2006-12-11 02:26:25 · answer #4 · answered by counterculturalist 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋