Victimless Crimes?

Question

Why is it that in "victimless crimes" like prostitution and the sale of drugs, both parties are held criminally responsible and liable, wheras in the equally "victimless" crime of violating a price control (such as charging more for rent or paying less then the minimum wage), only the seller faces legal consequences?

A Victimless Crime, also known as Consensual Crime, is any activity which does not physically harm a person or property, or to which was in fact consented, and is currently illegal if based on statutory laws!

My point is that in prostitution, selling drugs, and going against price controls, BOTH PARTIES are involved...VOLUNTARILY. I am not talking about rape. I am talking about Prostitution. I am not talking about robberies or burglaries.

Now, does everyone see why these crimes are called victimless?

Answer 1

First of all -- those crimes you mentioned (Prostitution and/or sale of Drugs) DO have VICTIMS --

in the Case of Prostitution -- the Johns are bringing into the home not just their secret infidelity -- but also directly transmitting to their spouses or homes the very high probability of a DEADLY Sexually Transmitted Disease on their VICTIMS (the Spouse or partner) -- and this is done withOUT the consent or knowledge of their partner. An ABOMINABLE Situation made much worse by IRRESPONSIBLE individuals who frequent the Prostitutes.

From the sale of Drugs -- the Individuals consuming those drugs DESTROY the lives of those around them -- they STEAL, They Burglarize, they beat/abuse -- they KILL all for the next high -- and these VICTIMS -- they are NOT the ones doing the Drugs or those who are selling them -- they can be Random Individuals walking down the street -- the mother of the Drug Abuser who finds her purse emptied by her addict child, the Elder citizen shoved down and robbed for the dollars in their purse -- and (god forbid) that the Drug User (addict) get behind the wheel of a vehicle and KILL/MAIM/Injure another ... all without ANY care or concern about the VICTIMS of these crimes.

Answer 2

In case of crimes like prostitution and sale of drugs, both the buyers and sellers are breaking the law and it is not the necessasity for any of the parties, but in case of violation for price control and minimum wage, it is the necessasity for the person who avail these services whereas the provider is criminally offending for the need of the person.

Answer 3

Well in drugs and prostitution both parties have control over what they are doing. When it's rent or wages only the person who controls that is responsible. I mean obviously someone isn't going to decide they want to pay more rent or work for less?

Answer 4

But that would not be a victimless crime. The person whose rent was raised or the person being paid less than min. wage - they are the victims.

Answer 5

It relies upon, for occasion interior the united kingdom coverage fraud (ie bumping up the fee of your declare) is considered by using many to be victimless. whether fraud ought to be paid for and all of us bear the fee with greater suitable costs! a pal of mine became into arrested a number of years in the past, for dancing interior the line on the same time as giving out plant existence to elderly women folk. He had a checklist of psychological well-being issues and the police have been attentive to this. whether all of us considered that if this became into deemed a "crime", breach of the peace: then it became right into a victimless one! no person became into upset by using his behaviour curiously and a number of different of his alleged victims theory that he became into beautiful!

Answer 6

because those you mentioned do have victims. the renter who payed mroe than they should have, and the person getting less than they should

Answer 7

huh?