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Sin (0.2pi) / Cos (0.3pi)

According to my calulator, it equals 1, but I don't know how to show the work tha t leads to this answer.

2006-12-10 15:02:40 · 2 answers · asked by keenan93312 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

This is true because cos(pi/2-x) =sin(x)

sin (0.2pi)/cos(0.3pi) =
sin(0.2pi)/sin(pi -0.3pi) =
sin(0.2pi)/sin(0.2pi) =1


Helmut is correct--
sin(0.2pi)/sin(pi -0.3pi) should be
sin(0.2pi)/sin(pi/2-0.3pi)
I forgot to divide pi by 2

2006-12-10 15:11:24 · answer #1 · answered by PC_Load_Letter 4 · 0 0

SoylentGr... is correct, but has an error in equation 2
It should read
sin(0.2pi)/sin(0.5pi - 0.3pi)

2006-12-10 23:25:22 · answer #2 · answered by Helmut 7 · 0 0

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