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a) strictly enforeced
b) not strictly enforced
c) designed to encourage the colonies to trade with other nations
d) none of theses

2006-12-10 14:19:17 · 2 answers · asked by Jonny H 1 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

These questions cannot be answered only by intensive research in archives, look here for instance:
http://www.llmc.com/common_law_abroad_post.htm

What I found is about the English philosophers who talked about property rights
Pre-industrial English philosophy
Thomas Hobbes 1600's

The principal writings of Thomas Hobbes appeared between 1640 and 1651—during and immediately following the war between forces loyal to King Charles I and those loyal to Parliament. In his own words, Hobbes' reflection began with the idea of "giving to every man his own," a phrase he drew from the writings of Cicero. But he wondered: How can anybody call anything his own? In that unsettled time and place it perhaps was natural that he would conclude: My own can only truly be mine if there is one unambiguously strongest power in the realm, and that power treats it as mine, protecting its status as such.

James Harrington 1600's

A contemporary of Hobbes, James Harrington, reacted differently to the same tumult; he considered property natural but not inevitable. Harrington, author of Oceana, may have been the first political theorist to postulate that political power is a consequence, not the cause, of the distribution of property. He said that the worst possible situation is one in which the commoners have half a nation's property, with crown and nobility holding the other half—a circumstance fraught with instability and violence. A much better situation (a stable republic) will exist once the commoners own most property, he suggested.

In later years, the ranks of Harrington's admirers would include American revolutionary and founder John Adams.

Robert Filmer 1600's and more here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Property

2006-12-10 18:30:37 · answer #1 · answered by Josephine 7 · 0 0

I am not sure of the relevance of the year 1763, but certainly during most of the 18th century the doctrine of Mercantilism was observed by Governments of Great Britain.This involved control of trade as the theory held that the global 'volume of trade' was 'unchangeable' Mercantilism suggests that the ruling government should play a protectionist role in the economy, by encouraging exports and discouraging imports, especially through the use of tariffs. This theory began to break down under the influence of economists like Adam Smith.

2006-12-10 22:13:45 · answer #2 · answered by rdenig_male 7 · 0 0

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